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UPDATED N5334 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2 QUESTIONS WITH 100% EXACT ANSWERS 2024 REVISED, Exams of Pharmacology

UPDATED N5334 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2 QUESTIONS WITH 100% EXACT ANSWERS 2024 REVISED GRADED A+ . UPDATED N5334 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2 QUESTIONS WITH 100% EXACT ANSWERS 2024 REVISED GRADED A+ .

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2023/2024

Available from 10/02/2024

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UPDATED N5334 ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2 QUESTIONS
WITH 100% EXACT ANSWERS 2024
REVISED GRADED A+ .
You examine a 38-year-old woman who has presented
for an initial examination and Papanicolaou test. She has
no complaint. Her blood pressure (BP) is 154/98 mm Hg
bilaterally and her body mass index (BMI) is 31 kg/m2.
The rest of her physical examination is unremarkable.
Your next best action is to:
A. initiate antihypertensive therapy.
B. arrange for at least two additional BP measurements
during the next 2 weeks.
C. order blood urea nitrogen, creatinine, and potassium
ion measurements and urinalysis.
D. advise her to reduce her sodium intake. - Exact answer B
You see a 68-year-old woman as a patient who is transferring
care into your practice. She has a 10-year history
of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidemia.
Current medications include hydrochlorothiazide
(HCTZ), glipizide, metformin, simvastatin, and daily
low-dose aspirin. Today's BP reading is 158/92 mm Hg,
and the rest of her history and examination are unremarkable.
Documentation from her former healthcare
provider indicates that her BP has been in the range for
the past 12 months. Your next best action is to:
A. prescribe an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
(ACEI).
B. have her return for a BP check in 1 week.
C. advise that her current therapy is adequate.
D. add therapy with an aldosterone antagonist. - Exact answer A
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Download UPDATED N5334 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2 QUESTIONS WITH 100% EXACT ANSWERS 2024 REVISED and more Exams Pharmacology in PDF only on Docsity!

UPDATED N5334 ADVANCED

PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2 QUESTIONS

WITH 100% EXACT ANSWERS 2024

REVISED GRADED A+.

You examine a 38-year-old woman who has presented for an initial examination and Papanicolaou test. She has no complaint. Her blood pressure (BP) is 154/98 mm Hg bilaterally and her body mass index (BMI) is 31 kg/m2. The rest of her physical examination is unremarkable. Your next best action is to: A. initiate antihypertensive therapy. B. arrange for at least two additional BP measurements during the next 2 weeks. C. order blood urea nitrogen, creatinine, and potassium ion measurements and urinalysis. D. advise her to reduce her sodium intake. - Exact answer B You see a 68-year-old woman as a patient who is transferring care into your practice. She has a 10-year history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidemia. Current medications include hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), glipizide, metformin, simvastatin, and daily low-dose aspirin. Today's BP reading is 158/92 mm Hg, and the rest of her history and examination are unremarkable. Documentation from her former healthcare provider indicates that her BP has been in the range for the past 12 months. Your next best action is to: A. prescribe an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI). B. have her return for a BP check in 1 week. C. advise that her current therapy is adequate. D. add therapy with an aldosterone antagonist. - Exact answer A

You examine a 78-year-old woman with long-standing, poorly controlled hypertension. When evaluating her for hypertensive target organ damage, you look for evidence of: A. lipid abnormalities. B. insulin resistance. C. left ventricular hypertrophy. D. clotting disorders. - Exact answer C Diagnostic testing for a patient with newly diagnosed primary hypertension should include all of the following except: A. hematocrit. B. uric acid. C. creatinine. D. potassium. - Exact answer B In the person with hypertension, the nurse practitioner (NP) recommends all of the following to potentially reduce BP in a patient with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 except: A. 10-kg (22-lb) weight loss. B. dietary sodium restriction to 2.4 g (6 g NaCl) per day. C. regular aerobic physical activity, such as 30-40 minutes of brisk walking most days of the week. D. consuming at least 1-2 servings of alcohol. - Exact answer D Match the antihypertension medication with its appropriate class. _______6. amlodipine _______7. diltiazem _______8. trandolapril _______9. telmisartan _______10. pindolol A. beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist B. nondihydropyridine

D. Obtaining the BP reading immediately after the patient walks into the examination room is recommended. - Exact answer A A BP elevation noted only at an office visit is commonly known as hypertension. A. provider-induced B. clinical C. white coat D. pseudo - Exact answer C The most important long-term goal of treating hypertension is to: A. strive to reach recommended numeric BP measurement. B. avoid disease-related target organ damage. C. develop a plan of care with minimal adverse effects. D. treat concomitant health problems often noted in the person with this condition. - Exact answer B You start a patient with hypertension who is already receiving an ACEI on spironolactone. You advise the patient to return in 4 weeks to check which of the following laboratory parameters? A. sodium B. calcium C. potassium D. chloride - Exact answer C A 68-year-old woman presents with hypertension and BP of 152-158/92-96 mm Hg documented over 2 months on three different occasions. Electrocardiogram (ECG) and creatinine are normal, and she has no proteinuria. Clinical findings include the following: BMI 26.4 kg/m2; no S3, S4, or murmur; and point of maximal impulse at fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line. Which of the following represents the best intervention? A. Initiate therapy with metoprolol. B. Initiate therapy with hydrochlorothiazide. C. Initiate therapy with methyldopa.

D. Continue to monitor BP, and start drug therapy if evidence of target organ damage. - Exact answer B Which of the following can have a favorable effect on a comorbid condition in a person with hypertension? A. chlorthalidone in gout B. propranolol with airway disease C. aldosterone antagonist in heart failure D. methyldopa in an older adult - Exact answer C According to JNC-8 guidelines, all of the following medications are first-line agents for use in a middle-aged white man without diabetes mellitus except: A. lisinopril. B. hydrochlorothiazide. C. metoprolol. D. amlodipine. - Exact answer C You see a 59-year-old man with poorly controlled hypertension. On physical examination, you note grade 1 hypertensive retinopathy. You anticipate all of the following will be present except: A. patient report of acute visual change. B. narrowing of the terminal arterioles. C. sharp optic disc borders. D. absence of retinal hemorrhage. - Exact answer A According to JNC-8, a 52-year-old well woman with a healthy BMI whose blood pressure is consistently 130-135/82-86 mm Hg is considered to have: A. normal blood pressure. B. hypertension requiring therapy with a calcium channel blocker (CCB). C. hypertension requiring therapy with an alpha blocker. D. hypertension requiring therapy with a thiazide-type diuretic. - Exact answer A

with CKD _______27. a 62-year-old female with no history of DM or CKD _______28. an 82-year-old male with no history of DM or CKD _______29. a 72-year-old female with DM and CKD - Exact answer 24. C.

  1. C.
  2. C.
  3. D.
  4. D.
  5. C. You see a 62-year-old man without chronic kidney disease or diabetes mellitus who is currently being treated with low-dose HCTZ and losartan. His blood pressure is currently 162/88 mm Hg. All of the following are appropriate next courses of action except: A. increasing the dose of losartan. B. adding a beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist. C. adding a calcium channel blocker. D. increasing the dose of HCTZ. - Exact answer B Which of the following statements concerning postural hypotension in the elderly is false? A. It increases the risk of falls and syncope. B. It is characterized by a drop in blood pressure when going from a standing to a sitting position. C. It increases the risk of cardiovascular events. D. It is associated with the use of vasodilating medications. - Exact answer B According to American College of Cardiology Foundation/American Heart Association (ACCF/AHA) guidelines, when treating elderly

patients with hypertension, which of the following medications have a compelling indication for use in the following patient conditions? (The medications listed can be used more than once. A given condition can have more than one medication indicated.) A. thiazide diuretic B. beta blocker C. ACEI D. ARB E. aldosterone antagonist F. calcium channel blocker _______32. heart failure _______33. diabetes mellitus _______34. angina pectoris B _______35. coronary artery disease _______36. aortic aneurysm _______37. recurrent stroke prevention - Exact answer 32. A, B, C, D, E, F.

  1. A, B, C, D, F.
  2. B, F.
  3. A, B, C, F.
  4. A, B, C, F.
  5. A, C, D, F.
  6. You examine a 24-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse (MVP). Her physical examination findings may also include: A. pectus excavatum. B. obesity. C. petite stature. D. hyperextensible joints. - Exact answer A
  7. In performing a cardiac examination in a person with MVP, you expect to find: A. an early- to mid-systolic, crescendo-decrescendo murmur.

the next step in obtaining a diagnostic procedure usually includes a: A. ventilation perfusion scan. B. echocardiogram. C. pulmonary artery angiography. D. cardiac computerized tomography (CT) scan. - Exact answer B

  1. You are evaluating a patient who has rheumatic heart disease. When assessing her for mitral stenosis, you auscultate the heart, anticipating finding the following murmur: A. systolic with wide radiation over the precordium. B. localized diastolic with little radiation. C. diastolic with radiation to the neck. D. systolic with radiation to the axilla. - Exact answer B
  2. In evaluating mitral valve incompetency, you expect to find the following murmur: A. systolic with radiation to the axilla. B. diastolic with little radiation. C. diastolic with radiation to the axilla. D. localized systolic. - Exact answer A
  3. In evaluating the person with aortic stenosis, the NP anticipates finding 12-lead ECG changes consistent with: A. right bundle branch block. B. extreme axis deviation. C. right atrial enlargement. D. left ventricular hypertrophy. - Exact answer D
  4. Signs and symptoms consistent with endocarditis include all of the following except: A. bradycardia. B. Osler's nodes. C. hematuria. D. petechiae. - Exact answer A
  5. From the following list, the most helpful test in suspected bacterial endocarditis includes:

A. urine culture. B. blood culture. C. chest x-ray. D. myocardial biopsy. - Exact answer B

  1. Of the following patients, who is in greatest need of endocarditis prophylaxis when planning dental work? A. a 22-year-old woman with MVP with trace mitral regurgitation noted on echocardiogram B. a 54-year-old woman with a prosthetic aortic valve C. a 66-year-old man with cardiomyopathy D. a 58-year-old woman who had a three-vessel coronary artery bypass graft with drug-eluting stents 1 year ago - Exact answer B
  2. Of the following people, who has no significant increased risk for developing bacterial endocarditis? A. a 43-year-old woman with a bicuspid aortic valve B. a 55-year-old man who was diagnosed with a Still's murmur during childhood C. a 45-year-old woman with a history of endocarditis D. a 75-year-old man with dilated cardiomyopathy - Exact answer B
  3. You are examining an 85-year-old woman and find a grade 3/6 crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur with radiation to the neck. This is most likely caused by: A. aortic stenosis. B. aortic regurgitation. C. anemia. D. mitral stenosis. - Exact answer A
  4. Aortic stenosis in a 15-year-old male is most likely: A. a sequela of rheumatic fever. B. a result of a congenital defect. C. calcific in nature. D. found with atrial septal defect. - Exact answer B
  1. A grade III systolic heart murmur is usually: A. softer than the S2 heart sound. B. about as loud as the S1 heart sound. C. accompanied by a thrill. D. heard across the precordium but without radiation. - Exact answer B 61.The S3 heart sound has all of the following characteristics except: A. it is heard in early diastole B. a presystolic sound C. it is noted in the presence of ventricular overload D. it is heard best with the bell of the stethoscope - Exact answer B
  2. The S4 heart sound has which of the following characteristics? A. After it is initially noted, it is a permanent finding. B. It is noted in the presence of poorly controlled hypertension. C. It is heard best in early diastole. D. It is a high-pitched sound best heard with the diaphragm of the stethoscope. - Exact answer B
  3. Of the following individuals, who is most likely to have a physiological split S2 heart sound? A. a 19-year-old healthy athlete B. a 49-year-old with well-controlled hypertension C. a 68-year-old with stable heart failure D. a 78-year-old with cardiomyopathy - Exact answer A
  4. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) is inherited in: A. a sex-linked recessive manner. B. a sex-linked dominant manner. C. an autosomal-recessive manner. D. an autosomal-dominant manner. - Exact answer D
  5. Heart failure pathophysiology is characterized by: A. impaired atrial filling and ejection of blood. B. incomplete closure of tricuspid valve. C. near normal ventricular function.

D. inadequate cardiac output to meet oxygen and metabolic demands of the body. - Exact answer D

  1. A leading cause of heart failure is: A. hypertensive heart disease. B. atrial fibrillation. C. pulmonary embolism. D. type 2 diabetes. - Exact answer A 94 to 96. Match each of the following conditions with its mechanism for contributing to heart failure:
  2. pneumonia
  3. anemia
  4. high sodium intake A. increase in circulating volume of blood B. increased right-sided heart workload C. decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of blood - Exact answer 94. B.
  5. C.
  6. A.
  7. The condition of a sudden shortness of breath that usually occurs after 2-3 hours of sleep and leads to sudden awakening followed by a feeling of severe anxiety and breathlessness is known as: A. dyspnea. B. orthopnea. C. resting dyspnea. D. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. - Exact answer D
  8. You examine an 82-year-old woman who has a history of heart failure (HF). She is in the office because of increasing shortness of breath. When auscultating her heart, you note a tachycardia with a rate of 104 beats per minute and a single extra heart sound early in diastole. This sound most likely represents: A. summation gallop. B. S3. C. opening snap. D. S4. - Exact answer B

A. shortened PR interval. B. slightly depressed, cupped ST segments. C. widened QRS complex. D. tall T waves. - Exact answer B

  1. A potential adverse effect of ACEI when used with spironolactone therapy is: A. hypertension. B. hyperkalemia. C. renal insufficiency. D. proteinuria. - Exact answer B
  2. ECG findings in a patient with digoxin toxicity would most likely include: A. atrioventricular heart block. B. T wave inversion. C. sinus tachycardia. D. pointed P waves. - Exact answer A
  3. Patients reporting symptoms of digoxin toxicity are most likely to include: A. anorexia. B. disturbance in color perception. C. blurred vision. D. diarrhea. - Exact answer A
  4. Which of the following is among the most common causes of HF? A. dietary indiscretion B. COPD C. hypertensive heart disease D. anemia - Exact answer C
  5. Which of the following medications is an aldosterone antagonist? A. clonidine B. spironolactone C. hydrochlorothiazide D. furosemide - Exact answer B
  1. Which of the following best describes orthopnea? A. shortness of breath with exercise B. dyspnea that develops when the individual is recumbent and is relieved with elevation of the head C. shortness of breath that occurs at night, characterized by a sudden awakening after a couple of hours of sleep, with a feeling of severe anxiety, breathlessness, and suffocation D. dyspnea at rest - Exact answer B
  2. Which of the following is unlikely to be noted in the person experiencing HF? A. elevated serum B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) B. Kerley B lines noted on chest x-ray C. left ventricular hypertrophy on ECG D. evidence of hemoconcentration on hemogram - Exact answer D
  3. Which of the following medications is an alpha/ beta-adrenergic antagonist? A. atenolol B. metoprolol C. propranolol D. carvedilol - Exact answer D
  4. Which of the following best describes the patient presentation of New York Heart Association stage III heart disease? A. Ordinary physical activity does not cause undue fatigue, dyspnea, or palpitations. B. Ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea, or angina. C. Less-than-ordinary activity leads to fatigue, dyspnea, palpitations, or angina. D. Discomfort increases with any physical activity. - Exact answer C
  5. The risk for digoxin toxicity increases with concomitant use of all of the following medications except: A. amiodarone. B. clarithromycin.
  1. A 44-year-old man has a long-standing history of moderate persistent asthma that is normally well controlled by fluticasone with salmeterol (Advair®) via metered-dose inhaler, one puff twice a day, and the use of albuterol 1 to 2 times a week as needed for wheezing. Three days ago, he developed a sore throat, clear nasal discharge, body aches, and a dry cough. In the past 24 hours, he has had intermittent wheezing that necessitated the use of albuterol, two puffs every 3 hours, which produced partial relief. Your next most appropriate action is to obtain a: A. chest radiograph. B. measurement of oxygen saturation (SaO2). C. spirometry measurement. D. sputum smear for white blood cells (WBCs). - Exact answer C
  2. You examine Jane, a 24-year-old woman who has an acute asthma flare following a 3-day history of upper respiratory tract symptoms (clear nasal discharge, dry cough, no fever). She has a history of moderate persistent asthma that is in good control and an acceptable peak expiratory flow (PEF). She is using budesonide (Pulmicort®) and albuterol as directed and continues to have difficulty with coughing and wheezing. At home, her PEF is 55% of personal best. In the office, her forced expiratory volume at 1 second (FEV1) is 65% of predicted. Her medication regimen should be adjusted to include: A. theophylline. B. salmeterol (Serevent®). C. prednisone. D. montelukast (Singulair®). - Exact answer C
  3. For Jane in question 4, you also prescribe: A. amoxicillin. B. azithromycin. C. levofloxacin. D. no antimicrobial therapy. - Exact answer D
  4. Peak expiratory flow meters:

A. should only be used in the presence of a medical professional. B. provide a convenient method to check lung function at home. C. are as accurate as spirometry. D. should not be used more than once daily. - Exact answer B

  1. Which of the following is most likely to appear on a chest radiograph of a person during an acute severe asthma attack? A. hyperinflation B. atelectasis C. consolidation D. Kerley B signs - Exact answer A
  2. A 36-year-old man with asthma also needs antihypertensive therapy. Which of the following products should you avoid prescribing? A. hydrochlorothiazide B. propranolol C. amlodipine D. enalapril - Exact answer B
  3. Which of the following is inconsistent with the presentation of asthma that is not well controlled? A. a troublesome nocturnal cough at least 2 nights per week B. need for albuterol to relieve shortness of breath at least twice a week C. morning sputum production D. two or more exacerbations/year requiring oral corticosteroids - Exact answer C 10.The cornerstone of moderate persistent asthma drug therapy is the use of: A. oral theophylline. B. mast cell stabilizers. C. short-acting beta2-agonists (SABA). D. inhaled corticosteroids. - Exact answer D