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RD Exam Practice Questions With Complete Solutions Which of the following carbohydrates is not a monosaccharide? a. fructose b. galactose c. maltose d. glucose C. Maltose Fructose found in fruit and is sweetest of all monosaccharides. Galactose is derived from hydrolysis of lactose (milk sugar) during digestion. Not found freely in foods. Glucose is the primary monosaccharide used for energy. Generally part of sucrose (disaccharide; glucose + fructose) or linked to lactose to form galactose (disaccharide; glucose + lactose). When glucose is linked to another glucose molecule, it forms maltose and is considered a disaccharide. Which of the following statements about glycogen is true? a. Glycogen is a long-term energy source. b. The liver stores approximately 100 grams of glycogen. c. Glycogen is stored primarily in the liver but also appears in skeletal and heart muscles.
d. The glycogen found in skeletal muscles is catabolized for use anywhere in the body. B. The liver stores approximately 100 grams of glycogen. glycogen is short-term carbohydrate storage for the body. ~100g of glycogen is stored in the liver, which when catabolized provides ~400 kcals. About 300-400g of glycogen is stored in the skeletal muscles, which yields less than 1600kcal. Glycogen is NOT stored in the heart muscle. The glycogen stored in the liver provides energy anywhere in the body, whereas the glycogen stored in the skeletal muscles provides energy only to skeletal muscle cells. The amount of stored glycogen is sufficient to sustain an 70kg male for approximately 1 day. Which of the following statements about controlling blood glucose levels is false? a. Beta cells in the islets of Langerhans produce insulin, which is released when blood glucose levels rise in response to a meal. b. Alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans secrete glucagon when the patient is fasting, which stimulates the liver to break down glycogen to maintain blood glucose levels in the normal range of 80 to 120 mg/dl. c. The adrenals secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine when the patient is fasting, which stimulates muscles to release glycogen to maintain blood glucose levels. d. Glucocorticoids, such as cortisol stimulate glycolysis to increase blood glucose levels.
concentrated energy, at 9 kcal per gram, whereas protein and carbohydrate only provide 4kcal/g. Structural fat pads cushion and protect the body from injury, especially bones and internal organs. Fat provides a source of essential fatty acids, which the body does not manufacture, but mostly obtain from seeds, oils, cold-water fish, or supplements. The three essential fatty acids (EFAs) are arachnoidic, linoleic, and linolenic. EFAs are important for blood clotting and brain development. Eicosapentaenoic (EPA) and docosahexaenoic (DHA) derive from alpha-linolenic acid, but are not themselves essential fatty acids. Fats are also required for the absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins A,D,E, & K. Which of the following are not essential amino acids? a. Lysine, leucine, valine b. Isoleucine, tryptophan, phenylalanine c. methionine, threonine, lysine d. tyrosine, glycine, alanine D. Tyrosine, glycine, alanine. Amino acids are the building blocks of protein. There are 20 amino acids in total. Nine AA are essential and cannot be made by the body: Isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, valine, and histidine. Often, adults can synthesize enough histidine, but infants and children cannot. Essential AAs must be obtained from food. The best sources of essential AAs are animal products, such as meat, poultry, fish, dairy, and eggs. A diet containing 10% to 12% of
calories from protein should meet essential AAs requirements. The non-essential AAs are arginine, alanine, asparagine, aspartic acid, cysteine, glutamine, glutamic acid, glycine, proline, serine, and tyrosine. Which of the following statements about excessive protein intake is false? a. Excessive protein intake is difficult to achieve and, therefore, is not a danger. b. Excessive protein intake increases calcium excretion, which can potentially lead to osteoporosis. c. Excessive protein in the diet is broken down in the kidneys and excreted in the urine as urea. d. Excessive protein intake will not help an athlete build more muscles, but will instead convert into fat, if it is not used as an energy source. A. Excessive protein intake is difficult to achieve and, therefore, is not a danger. The majority of Americans consume protein in excess requirements. Many people consume at least twice as much as they need. Some excess protein becomes a calorie source or converts to fat. Studies demonstrated an increase in calcium excretion related to an increase in protein intake, especially
-vegies contain 2 grams PRO/ serving -milk contains 8 grams per 8 ounces serving -there is no significant PRO in fruit. *check serving size as portion sizes vary between food items. Kwashiorkor patients have all of the following characteristics except: a. loss of somatic stores b. preservation of somatic stores c. loss of visceral protein stores d. large, protruding abdomen A. Loss of somatic stores. Kwashiorkor is malnutrition for lack of amino acids. It usually affects weaned children between 12months and 3 y/o in third world countries with famine, drought, political unrest, or traditional eating habits. The victim's diet is protein-deprived. Most calories are derived from a restricted carbohydrate source, such as corn or sugar-water. Kwashiorkor is uncommon in the US., where it usually appears only in severely abused children and neglected nursing home residents. The main characteristics include preservation of somatic or fat stores and loss of visceral protein stores. The signs and symptoms of kwashiorkor are: A large, protruding belly; significant edema; changes in hair and skin pigment; skin rash; fatigue; irritability; diarrhea; and decreased immune function. Victims never reach their height potential.
Which description of marasmus is most accurate? a. Starvation from food deprivation, with a decrease in somatic and visceral protein stores, but subcutaneous fat stores are preserved. b. Protein deprivation, with adequate calories from carbohydrates and depletion of visceral protein stores, but preservation of somatic stores. c. Severe malnutrition, with loss of subcutaneous fat and depletion of muscle mass, followed by a breakdown in lean body mass. d. A form of malnutrition mainly seen in the US, due to limited access to food. C. Severe malnutrition, with loss of subcutaneous fat and depletion of muscle mass, followed by a breakdown in lean body mass. Marasmus is severe malnutrition from lack of calories. It usually affects infants 6 to 18months old when their mother's breast milk fails and they contract chronic diarrhea from polluted water. It can also affect children with metabolic disorders of malabsorption. Marasmus is characterized by: decrease in somatic and subcutaneous stores, preservation of visceral protein stores, depletion of lean body mass; pronounced weight loss (emaciation) to 20% of normal for a given ht; large head; loose skin; intellectual disability; depression; and failure to thrive. By contrast, kwashiorkor affects children 1-3 y/o with depleted visceral protein stores, but somatic and subcutaneous fat stores
Vitamin D has many functions, but mainly it promotes calcium and phosphorus homeostasis. Vitamin D also plays a role in skin, muscle and nerve function, cell differentiation, and immune function. All of the following are good sources of niacin except: a. chicken b. tuna c. mushrooms d. baked potato d. baked potato Niacin is found in many foods including chicken, turkey, lean meats, and fish. Niacin is one of four vitamins added to enriched grain products (flours, cereals, breads) Beans, seeds, legumes (peanuts and lentils) are good sources of niacin. Milk, coffee, and tea provide some niacin. Vegetables except mushroom's are not a good source of niacin. Most people get plenty of niacin from their diets and do not require supplementation. Significant side effects may occur, such as severe flushing or itching skin, and liver damage. Which of the following statements about zinc absorption is true? a. Zinc absorption is lower in during pregnancy and lactation. b. consuming a high protein meal promotes zinc absorption through the formation of zinc amino acid chelates, a more easily absorbed form of zinc c. both phyates and tannins affect zinc absorption d. consuming soy protein inhibits zinc absorption
b. consuming a high protein meal promotes zinc absorption through the formation of zinc amino acid chelates, a more easily absorbed form of zinc A high protein meal does promote zinc absorption. Zinc is absorbed at the brush border of the small intestine. The human body typically absorbs 20-40% of ingested zinc. Zinc must be protein bound to be absorbed. Therefore the protein in the meal helps to form zinc-amino acid chelates that enhances absorption. Phyates interfere with the absorption of zinc; however, it appears that tannins do not. Soy protein improves zinc absorption. Which of the following statements best describes a normal infant's growth during the first year of life? a. an infant loses weight initially after birth, regains it by Day 10, double birth weight by 6 months, triples birth weight and doubles length by his/ her first birthday. b. An infant losses weight initially after birth, regains it by Day 10, doubles birth weight by 4 months, quadruples weight and triple length during the first year. c. After birth, the growth of an infant depends solely on the nutrition he/she receives d. the growth percentiles determined at birth are the best predictor of the infant's growth during infancy and childhood. a. an infant losses weight initially after birth, regains it by day 10, doubles birth weight by 6 months, triples birth weight and doubles length by his/her first birthday.
catabolism is greater than the rate of anabolism. The aging process is influenced by genetics, socioeconomic status, overall health, activity level and lifestyle. Lean body mass is lost at a rate of 2-3% per decade and it is often replaced with fat. Lean body mass is the most metabolically active tissue, so its loss reduces the resting metabolic rate by 15-20% over the course of a lifetime. Other physiological changes include nephrons loss in the kidneys and achlorhydria, which is reduced stomach acid affecting the absorption of vitamin B12 and subsequent pernicious anemia in elders. A very young child is at highest risk for a deficiency in: a. protein b. vitamin c c. calcium d. iron d. iron A child grows rapidly from the ages of 1-3 years. Some children are at risk for malnutrition because they are very fussy eaters, or are not offered appropriate foods to meet nutritional needs, or have a reduced appetite. The need for protein decreases as the child gets older. Most children consume more protein than is needed by the body. It is easy to meet the requirements for Vitamin C with a daily serving of juice. Calcium deficiency occurs if a child does not consume any sources of calcium. Iron deficiency is most likely to occur following the rapid growth of infancy, as there is an increase in hemoglobin. Many children's
diets lack iron and its absorption rate can be decreased by many factors. Which of the following statements most accurately describes nutrition screening? a. A registered dietitian must complete nutrition screening b. The purpose of a nutrition screen is to identify people with malnutrition or who are high-risk for developing malnutrition c. The elderly population benefits most from nutrition screening d. A proper nutritional screen requires the patient's height, weight, and laboratory data. b. the purpose of a nutrition screen is to identify people with malnutrition or who are high-risk for developing malnutrition. Nutrition screening is a part of the nutrition assessment process. Screening can be completed by a registered dietitian, dietetic technician, physician, nurse, or an appropriately trained delegate. The main purpose of the nutrition screen is to identify malnourished individuals or those who are at risk for developing malnutrition. Screening enables the practitioner to identify those individuals who are in need of a full nutrition assessment by the Registered Dietitian. Although the elderly do greatly benefit from frequent nutrition screening, the tool is useful for all age groups. The major components of a nutritional screen are: measuring height, weight; determining weight changes; and checking laboratory data. However, the information gathered for the screen varies, depending on its setting, the target population, and it's identified goals.
Above Age 80 c. Disease, Eating Poorly, Tooth Loss/Mouth Pain, Economic Hardship, Reduced Social Contact, Multiple Medicines, Involuntary Weight Loss/Gain, Needs Assistance in Self-Care, Elder Years Above Age 80 d. Disease, Eating Problems, Tooth Loss/ Mouth Pain, Extreme Difficulty with Mobility, Reduced Gastrointestinal Function, Multiple Medicines, Involuntary Weight Loss/Gain, Needs Assistance in Self-Care, Elders Years Above Age 80 c. Disease, Eating Poorly, Tooth Loss/Mouth Pain, Economic Hardship, Reduced Social Contact, Multiple Medicines, Involuntary Weight Loss/Gain, Needs Assistance in Self-Care, Elder Years Above Age 80. The acronym DETERMINE was developed as part of a nutrition checklist to help remind patients and caregivers about the warning signs and risk factors in the elderly population for developing malnutrition. The letters stand for Disease, Eating Poorly, Tooth Loss/Mouth Pain, Economic Hardship, Reduced Social Contact, Multiple Medicines, Involuntary Weight Loss/Gain, Needs Assistance in Self-Care, Elder Years Above Age 80. The checklist asks questions that delineate warnings, such as, "I have an illness or condition that made me change the kind and/ or amount of food I eat". The evaluator tallies the patient's responses to determine the overall level of nutritional risk, which varies from low, to moderate, to high risk.
Which of the following programs do not incorporate nutrition screening as part of the enrolment process? a. The Head start program b. Special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children (WIC) c. Farmer's Market Nutrition Program d. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program d. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program. The Head start program requires that a child's medical needs are up-to-date and his/her nutritional needs are addressed within 90 days of enrollment. The special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children (WIC) documents nutritional risk when the participant is certified. The farmer's market nutrition program is a part of the special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children program in 45 states. Participants currently enrolled in the WIC program are eligible for the Farmers Market by using separate coupons issued along with the participants' regular WIC benefits. The supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP), formerly known as the Food Stamp Program is based mainly on income level. Nutrition Screening is not part of the SNAP process. The Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA) is: a. A validated nutrition screening and assessment tool to identify the presence or risk of malnutrition in patients 65 and older. b. A validated nutrition screening and assessment tool to identify
c. A state program that obtains information from participants to improve health promotion and epidemiological research. d. A federal program that combines an interview with a physical exam to assess the general health and nutritional status of participants of any age living in the United States D. A federal program that combines an interview with a physical exam to assess the general health and nutritional status of participants of any age living in the United States. The National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) is a federal program that surveys the health and nutrition status of both children and adults in the United States. The program obtains information through an interview process. The interviewer gathers data about the participants' demographics, socioeconomic status, diet and health-related questions. The interview is followed by a physical examination that includes laboratory tests and medical, dental, and anthropometric measurements. The NHANES survey helps to establish the national standards for epidemiological research throughout the world. Past surveys produced data that helped researchers develop growth charts for infants and children, policies benchmarking blood lead levels, and increased public awareness about diseases, such as diabetes. All of the following statements about Healthy People 2020 are true except: a. The two top goals are to increase the quality of life and the number of years spent in good health, and to eliminate
disparities in health. b. There are 12 leading health indicators c. The program originated in the 1960s through the Surgeon General's Report on Health Promotion and Disease Prevention. d. There are 42 topic areas and hundreds of specific objectives. C. The program originated in the 1960s through the Surgeon General's report in health promotion and disease prevention. Healthy People 2020 is an extension of a health prevention program that originated in 1979 through the Surgeon General's report on health promotion and disease prevention. The programs two top goals are: To increase the overall quality of life and the number of years spent in good health, and to eliminate disparities in health between different parts of the population. There are 42 topic areas and hundreds of specific objectives that can be used by states, local communities, and various organizations and institutions. Some of the focus areas include cancer, obesity, diabetes, health communication, oral health and food safety. Data obtained for the Nutrition Assessment piece of the Nutrition Care Process is organized into these five categories: a. food/nutrition-related history; laboratory data and medical tests; social history; nutrition-focused physical findings; and client history b. food/ nutrition-related history; laboratory data; anthropometric measurements; physician exam; and client history
