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Portage Learning Microbiology Final Exam/100%
pass/accurate and precise answers
Match each of the following organelles with the correct description. Nucleus Endoplasmic Reticulum Lysosomes Chloroplasts - Nucleus - Contains genomic content of the cell Endoplasmic Reticulum - Series of membrane-enclosed sacs and interconnected tubes Lysosomes - Contain hydrolytic enzymes capable of degrading unwanted cellular debris Chloroplasts - Site of photosynthesis A virus is considered a microorganism. True or False - False What is the smallest biological unit of life? - A cell What are the four main types of macromolecules? - proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, carbohydrates proteins are formed from various combinations of ________________ - amino acids Briefly explain how a Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) forms an image of subcellular organelles, substrates, and viral particles. - An image is formed from the interactions of electrons as they reflect off (not through) the surface of the specimen.
Samples are coated in either gold or palladium to enhance electron reflections. The reflection is seen in 3-D rendering. How many amino acids are essential? - 20 Match each of the following diseases to the correct bacterial family. Scalded Skin Syndrome Bubonic PLague Opthalmia Neonatorium Legionnaires - Scalded Skin Syndrome - Staph Aureus Bubonic Plague - Yersina Pestis Opthalmia Neonatorium - Staphylococcus Legionnaires - Legionella Identify each of the following microorganisms as either a Prokaryote or a Eukaryote. E.coli Archaeons Yeast Amoeba - E.coli - Prokaryote Archaeons - Prokaryote Yeast - Eukaryote Amoeba - Eukaryote Match each of the following terms with the correct description. Phototroph
a researcher is looking to solidify an agent for growth media. What polysacc2charide substance would they use? - agar The Gram stain differentiates between bacteria based on the composition of their _____________. - Cell Wall Left untreated, three percent of cases of Streptococcal pharyngitis will progress to which of the following? - Rheumatic fever Describe TWO differences between DNA and RNA. - Any of the following are acceptable answers: RNA contains the sugar ribose rather than deoxyribose. RNA is always single-stranded, whereas DNA is double-stranded. While RNA contains the bases adenine, guanine, and cytosine, it does not utilize the pyrimidine base thymine. Instead, RNA contains uracil (U), which still pairs with adenine (A). True or False. If the statement is false, change it to make it true. When grown on Blood Agar Plates (BAP), microbes capable of alpha hemolysis present as greenish-brown color colonies due to incomplete (partial) lysis of red blood cells. - True; Alpha hemolysis presents as a greenish-brown color due to partial lysis of red blood cells. True or False. If the statement is false, change it to make it true. When grown on Blood Agar Plates (BAP), microbes capable of delta hemolysis designate the absence or lack of hemolytic activity and the resulting colonies are often white/tan in color growing on the red background of the unaffected BAP - present as greenish-brown color colonies due to incomplete (partial) lysis of red blood cells FALSE - Gamma-hemolysis designate the absence... List the 4 nitrogen bases in RNA and describe how they pair with one another - Adenine to Uracil, Guanine to Cytosine
Each of the following statements about glycolysis is true, except:
- Reactants include glucose, NAD, and ATP
- 2 molecules of ATP are required as reactants
- The net gain is 4 ATP
- Products include pyruvate, NADH, ATP, and H+ - The net gain is 4 ATP Each of the following statements about respiration are true, except:
- it is an aerobic process
- it does not produce atp
- it produces NADH and FADH2 in abundance
- the central cycle is called the tricarboxylic acid cycle - it does not produce ATP Describe the ONE main differences between lytic and temperate phages. - Lytic bacteriophages replicate within the host bacteria until it ruptures, whereas temperate (or lysogenic) phages primarily exist in a non-replicative state that does not kill the host cell. Also, lytic bacteriophages transfer their genome into the host cell and allow for replication of their viral proteins whereas temperate phages don't allow for replication of their viral proteins Bacteria that have a curved rod morphology are referred to as ______. - Vibrio You want to observe the movement of microorganisms that are present in a sample of cheek cells obtained on a patient. Briefly explain the technique that you would use and how it is performed. - A wet mount stain is indicated. A small liquid culture (usually just a drop) containing a microorganism of interest is prepared, added to a slide, and then covered with a glass coverslip. The coverslip is present to both protect the objective and the specimen while also holding the microorganism in place. Wet mounts are used to observe the motility and behavior of an organism.
True or False: Proteins can function to catalyze biochemical processes and play a role in structure, but they cannot enable movement. - False. Proteins can function to catalyze biochemical processes, play a role in structure, and they can enable movement. True or false: if false, make it true Lipids are primarily composed of __________ hydrocarbons FALSE: Lipids are primarily composed of ___________ hydrocarbons - Lipids are primarily composed of hydrophilic hydrocarbons FALSE: Lipids are primarily composed of hydrophobic hydrocarbons Would one of the SARS-coV-2 vaccines give immunity against SARS or MERS infection? Explain - SARS: the vaccine only has biological material for the specific spike protein which would be SARS, hence the name of the vaccine. There are unique vaccines to different strands on infections You are working with a patient who claims a friend "got the COVID-19 infection from the vaccine". Explain why the viral vector vaccine used to prevent the COVID-19 infection cannot transmit the actual infection. - The genome in the viral vector only encodes for a spike protein and not the other components of the virus. Therefore, new virions or virus particles cannot be made or replicated. Match each type of microscopy with the correct description. Bright Field Microscope Fluorescence Microscope Phase Contrast Microscope Electron Microscope Confocal Microscope
Dark Field Microscope - Bright Field Microscope - The simplest form of light, or optical, microscopes. Light, most often emitted from a standard halogen bulb, enters the microscope from the base (bottom) and is reflected via mirrors towards the sample. Fluorescence Microscope - Incoming light is in the form of the ultraviolet (UV) spectrum Phase Contrast Microscope - Can provide detailed images of live cells without staining Electron Microscope - Use of beams of electrons (rather than light) to increase its resolution capacity to less than 1 nm - that's 200x. Confocal Microscope - Combines the usefulness of fluorescence microscopy with the ability to visualize cells in 3-D Dark Field Microscope - The microscope reflects light off of the specimen at an angle rather than light passing through the specimen T or F: dark reactions can occur in the presence or absence of light - True Which of the following reactions is an example of a hydrolase? a. A + B → A-B b. A-B + H2O → A-OH + B-H c. A— + B →A + B— d. Ab + C → A + Cb - b. A-B + H2O → A-OH + B-H Which region in a four phase dilutional streak contains the highest concentration of a microbial organism? Describe the technique that is used in pulling the sample from one phase to the next.
- The first phase of the quadrant streak contains the highest concentration of a microbial organism. Using a new sterile loop, part of the sample is pulled from region 1 to region 2. This process is repeated again each time using a new sterile loop through the remaining regions. Which of the following is/are true of Animalia? (Select all that apply)
True or False: The metabolism of a lipid-derived carbon atom will yield more ATP than a molecule of glucose. - True True or false : if false, make true polysaccharides are too large to directly pass through the plasma membrane - Polysaccharides are easily transported directly across the plasma membrane Giemsa staining is used to detect each of the following, except:
- Neisseria Gonorrhea
- Histoplasma
- Chlamydia trachomatis
- Malaria - Neisseria Gonorrhea What STD is caused by Gram-negative, diplococci, fastidious bacteria that may result in cardiac and neurological complications? - Gonorrhea What STD is caused by Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacteria can cause infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease? - Chlamydia Which of the following are considered Protista? Select all that apply. - Amoeba and Algae A defining characteristic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue layers. True or False.
- True The function of the ribosome is: - protein synthesis
True or False: The distinguishing characteristic of Gram-Negative bacteria is the presence of LPS in the outer membrane - True Identify the following cellular components by matching the number with the description. -
- F Nucleus
- B Lysosome
- E Plasma membrane
- G Golgi apparatus
- D Rough endoplasmic reticulum The combination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to as the (select all that apply) - Cell envelope. Cell walls are found in which of the following: - Algae, Bacteria, Plants, and Fungi function of mitochondria - To produce energy The function of the Golgi is (select all that apply) - protein modification and distribution All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are autotropic. True or False. - False, they are heterotrophic What is the primary byproduct of the TCA cycle? Select all that apply. - FADH2 and NADH In the absence of glucose, which of the following cannot be used as alternative energy sources?
You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process. - Simple Stain and I would use crystal violet You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained, it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained side. - You would expect to see red cells on a blue background. If a patient is suspected of having malaria, a Giemsa stain would be an appropriate differential test to perform. A Giemsa stain can be used to determine the presence of pathogenic bacteria. - True Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice. - A Transmission Electron Microscope was used because we can see the subcellular substructures at 20 nm, 2D image of the internal structures. Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice (B). - Scanning electron microscope and we can tell based on the trademark shell that is shown in the 20 nm image. The purpose of quadrant streak is to produce individual colonies of a bacterial population. True or False - True A dilution gradient is formed when carrying out what generalized plating strategy. - Quadrant streak. In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the lowest concentration of bacteria, p2 or p4? - P4 is lowest conc. p2 is highest
True or False. Chlyamida is an obligate parasite and as such can be grown on agar plates alone. - False When performing a dilution streak a new loop must be used for each phase. - True, a new loop IS required In order to encourage growth of a slow growing microbe what might a researcher do during a phase dilution streak> - A research may either opt to perform a 3 phase dilution streak or pass the loop through the previous phase multiple times. A loop can pass through a previous phase multiple times if: - The gradient has the growth of individual colonies. To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher might decrease an incubator from 37ºC to 25ºC. - True When given an unknowin bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population. Which form of media supports this need and why? - LB media is the best because all other options are selective media and might potentially inhibit the growth of the unknown sample. Directly ingesting clostridrum or its associated pores will not cause illness in adults. True or False
- True Although there is no cure for tetanus, it can be prevented through vaccination. True or False - True
A drug company is trying to develop a new drug that will inhibit viral entry of Influenza. Would the drug company target hemagglutinin proteins or neuraminidase proteins? Why? - Hemagglutinins because hemagglutinins are involved in entry of viral particle into a host's cell. The viral capsid of HIV is dumbbell shaped and contains 2000 copies of p24. True or False - False what small (30nm) single stranded non enveloped RNA virus causes temporary or permanent paralysis by infiltrating motor neurons with in the spinal cord brainstem or motor cortex - polio.
