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Pharm HESI Practice Exam Latest update(QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS) 2024-2025], Exams of Nursing

Pharm HESI Practice Exam Latest update(QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS) 2024-2025]

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 07/14/2025

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Pharm HESI Practice Exam Latest
update(QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS) 2024-2025]
1. The nurse is caring for a client who has taken atenolol for 2 years.
The healthcare provider recently changed the medication to enalapril
to manage the client's blood pressure. Which instruction should the
nurse provide the client regarding the new medication?
A. Take the medication at bedtime.
B. Report presence of increased bruising.
C. Check pulse before taking medication.
D. Rise slowly when getting out of bed or chair.: D. Rise slowly when
getting out of bed or chair.
2. A female client calls the clinic and talks with the nurse to inquire
about a possible reaction after taking amoxicillin for 5 days. She
reports having
vaginal discomfort, itching, and a white discharge. The nurse should
discuss which action with the client?
A. Discontinue the antibiotic because original symptoms have subsided.
B. Continue taking medication until finished until the symptoms subside.
C. Consult with healthcare provider about another treatment for this
effect.
D. Use an over-the-counter (OTC) vaginal wash to flush out the
secretions.: C. Consult with healthcare provider about another treatment for
this effect.
3. The nurse is making early morning rounds on a group of clients
when a client begins exhibiting symptoms of an acute asthma attack.
The nurse
administers a PRN prescription for a Beta 2 receptor agonist agent. Which
client response should the nurse expect?
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Download Pharm HESI Practice Exam Latest update(QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS) 2024-2025] and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

Pharm HESI Practice Exam Latest

update(QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS) 2024-2025]

  1. The nurse is caring for a client who has taken atenolol for 2 years. The healthcare provider recently changed the medication to enalapril to manage the client's blood pressure. Which instruction should the nurse provide the client regarding the new medication? A. Take the medication at bedtime. B. Report presence of increased bruising. C. Check pulse before taking medication. D. Rise slowly when getting out of bed or chair.: D. Rise slowly when getting out of bed or chair.
  2. A female client calls the clinic and talks with the nurse to inquire about a possible reaction after taking amoxicillin for 5 days. She reports having vaginal discomfort, itching, and a white discharge. The nurse should discuss which action with the client? A. Discontinue the antibiotic because original symptoms have subsided. B. Continue taking medication until finished until the symptoms subside. C. Consult with healthcare provider about another treatment for this effect. D. Use an over-the-counter (OTC) vaginal wash to flush out the secretions.: C. Consult with healthcare provider about another treatment for this effect.
  3. The nurse is making early morning rounds on a group of clients when a client begins exhibiting symptoms of an acute asthma attack. The nurse administers a PRN prescription for a Beta 2 receptor agonist agent. Which client response should the nurse expect?

A. Tachycardia. B. Increased blood pressure. C. Rapid resolution of wheezing. D. Improved pulse oximetry values. E. Reduce fever airway inflammation.: C, D

  1. A client prescribed atenolol has a blood pressure of 120/68 mmHg, display- ing a sinus bradycardia with a rate of 58 beats/minute, and a P-R interval of 0.24. Which action should the nurse take? A. Lower the head of the bed and assess the client for orthostatic vital sign changes. B. Give the medication as prescribed and continue to monitor the client. C. Prepare to administer atropine sulfate IV push. D. Hold the prescribed dose and contact the healthcare provider.: B. Give the medication as prescribed and continue to monitor the client.
  2. The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), for a client with hypertension and heart failure. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and notes that the client's serum potassium level is 5.9 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Withhold the scheduled dose. B. Check the client's apical pulse. C. Notify the healthcare provider. D. Repeat the serum potassium level.: A. Withhold the scheduled dose.
  3. Upon admission to the emergency center, an adult client with acute status asthmaticus is prescribed this series of medications. In which order should the nurse administer the prescribed medications? (Arrange from first to last.)- : 1. Albuterol (Proventil) puffs.
  4. Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).
  5. Prednisone (Deltasone) orally.
  6. Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM.
  7. An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. Which

A. Potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. B. Sodium level of 132 mEq/L. C. Calcium level of 8.6 mg/dL. D. Magnesium level of 1.2 mEq/L.: A. Potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L.

  1. The nurse is transcribing a new prescription for spironolactone (Aldac- tone) for a client who receives an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) in- hibitor. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Verify both prescriptions with the healthcare provider. B. Report the medication interactions to the nurse manager. C. Hold the ACE inhibitor and give the new prescription. D. Transcribe and send the prescription to the pharmacy.: A. Verify both pre- scriptions with the healthcare provider.
  2. The nurse admits a client with tumor-induced spinal cord compression. Which medication should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed to offer the best palliative treatment for this client? A. Morphine sulfate. B. Ibuprofen. C. Amitriptyline. D. Dexamethasone.: D. Dexamethasone.
  3. The nurse is preparing an education session for a client prescribed opioids for intractable cancer pain. The nurse should include strategies to help prevent which common side effect associated with long-term use of opioids? A. Sedation. B. Constipation. C. Urinary retention. D. Respiratory depression.: B. Constipation.
  4. A client is prescribed controlled-release oxycodone. Which dosing sched- ule is best for the nurse to teach the client? A. As needed. B. Every 12 hours. C. Every 24 hours. D. Every 4 to 6 hours.: B. Every 12 hours.
  1. Which client should the nurse identify as being at highest risk for compli- cations during the use of an opioid analgesic? A. An older client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. B. A client with chronic rheumatoid arthritis. C. A client with a open compound fracture. D. A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease.: D. A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease.
  2. Which medications should the nurse caution the client about taking while receiving an opioid analgesic? A. Antacids. B. Benzodiazepines. C. Antihypertensives. D. Oral antidiabetics.: B. Benzodiazepines.
  3. A client is prescribed 1 mcg/kg/min of dobutamine hydrochloride via IV in- fusion. Which client's condition would benefit the most from an administration of dobutamine hydrochloride? A. Shock. B. Asthma. C. Hypotension. D. Heart failure.: D. Heart failure.
  4. A client is experiencing anaphylaxis from an insect sting. Which medica- tion should the nurse administer? A. Dopamine. B. Ephedrine. C. Epinephrine. D. Diphenhydramine.: C. Epinephrine.
  5. The healthcare provider prescribes a beta-1 agonist medication to be administered. The nurse should anticipate the medication to be prescribed for a client diagnosed with which condition? A. Glaucoma. B. Hypertension. C. Heart failure.
  1. After abdominal surgery, a client is prescribed low molecular weight he- parin (LMWH). During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse the reason for the medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide the client? A. This medication is given to prevent blood clot formation. B. This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection. C. This medication dissolves clots that develop in the legs. D. This medication enhances the healing of wounds.: A. This medication is given to prevent blood clot formation.
  2. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications? A. Do not add salt to foods during preparation. B. Refrain for eating foods high in potassium. C. Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day. D. Increase intake of milk and milk products.: B. Refrain for eating foods high in potassium.
  3. A client receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) intravenously (IV) complains of pain at the insertion site, and the nurse notes edema at the site. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Assess for erythema. B. Administer the antidote. C. Apply warm compresses. D. Discontinue the IV fluids.: D. Discontinue the IV fluids.
  4. A client with acute myocardial infarction is admitted to the coronary care unit. Which medication should the nurse administer to lessen the workload of the heart by decreasing the cardiac preload and afterload? A. Nitroglycerin. B. Propranolol (Inderal). C. Morphine. D. Captopril (Capoten).: A. Nitroglycerin.
  1. Which instruction should the nurse give to a female client who just received a prescription for oral metronidazole (Flagyl) for treatment of tri- chomonas vaginalis? (Select all that apply.) A. Increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice. B. Do not abruptly discontinue the medication; taper use. C. Check blood pressure daily to detect hypertension. D. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. E. Use condoms until treatment is completed. F. Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time.: A, D, E, F
  2. A client with hyperlipidemia receives a prescription for niacin (Niaspan). Which client teaching is most important for the nurse to provide? A. Expected duration of flushing. B. Symptoms of hyperglycemia. C. Diets that minimize GI irritation. D. Comfort measures for pruritus.: A. Expected duration of flushing.
  3. The nurse is planning discharge instructions for a client prescribed cy- closporine following a liver transplant. Which adverse reactions should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider? A. Changes in urine color. B. Presence of hand tremors. C. Increasing body hirsutism. D. Nausea and vomiting.: B. Presence of hand tremors.
  4. A client is taking hydromorphone (Dilaudid) PO every 4 hours at home. Following surgery, Dilaudid IV every 4 hours PRN and butorphanol tartrate (Stadol) IV every 4 hours PRN are prescribed for pain. The client received a dose of the Dilaudid IV four hours ago, and is again requesting pain medica- tion. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Alternate the two medications every 4 hours PRN for pain. B. Alternate the two medications every 2 hours PRN for pain. C. Administer only the Dilaudid every 4 hours PRN for pain. D. Administer only the Stadol every 4 hours PRN for pain.: C. Administer
  1. The nurse is providing care for a client prescribed propranolol. Which symptoms should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately? A. Headache, hypertension, and blurred vision. B. Wheezing, hypotension, and AV block. C. Vomiting, dilated pupils, and papilledema. D. Tinnitus, muscle weakness, and tachypnea.: B. Wheezing, hypotension, and AV block.
  2. A client asks the nurse if glipizide (Glucotrol) is an oral insulin. Which response should the nurse provide? A. "Yes, it is an oral insulin and has the same actions and properties as intermediate insulin." B. "Yes, it is an oral insulin and is distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the same manner as insulin." C. "No, it is not an oral insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is present." D. "No, it is not an oral insulin, but it is effective for those who are resistant to injectable insulins.": C. "No, it is not an oral insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is present."
  3. Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving the antimetabolite cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) for chemotherapy? A. Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion. B. Assess the client for numbness and tingling of extremities. C. Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations. D. Monitor the client's urine pH for increased acidity.: C. Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
  4. A 43-year-old female client is prescribed thyroid replacement hormone following a thyroidectomy. Which adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately to the healthcare provider?

A. Tinnitus and dizziness. B. Tachycardia and chest pain. C. Dry skin and intolerance to cold. D. Weight gain and increased appetite.: B. Tachycardia and chest pain.

  1. A client prescribed albuterol tablets reports nausea every evening with the 9:00 p.m. dose. Which action should the nurse perform to alleviate this side effect? A. Change the time of the dose. B. Hold the 9 p.m. dose. C. Administer the dose with a snack. D. Offer an antiemetic with the dose.: C. Administer the dose with a snack.
  2. A peak and trough level is prescribed for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. When should the nurse should obtain the trough level? A. Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered. B. Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given. C. Upon completion of the prescribed antibiotic regime. D. An hour before the next antibiotic dose is given.: B. Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given.
  3. A client is prescribed ampicillin sodium (Omnipen) for a sinus infection. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the healthcare provider immedi- ately if which symptom occurs? A. Rash. B. Nausea. C. Headache. D. Dizziness.: A. Rash.
  4. While taking a medical history, the client states, "I am allergic to penicillin." What related allergy to another type of antiinfective agent should the nurse ask the client about when taking the nursing history? A. Aminoglycosides. B. Cephalosporins. C. Sulfonamides. D. Tetracyclines.: B. Cephalosporins.
  5. A client receives a new prescription for sustained release

A. Assessment of the expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump. B. Assessment of the rate and depth of the client's respirations. C. Assessment of the type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure. D. Assessment of the client's subjective and objective signs of pain.: B. As- sessment of the rate and depth of the client's respirations.

  1. The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of high dose aspirin therapy for an 88-year-old client with arthritis. The client reports hearing non- stop ringing in the ears. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Refer the client to an audiologist for evaluation of her hearing. B. Advise the client that this is a common side effect. C. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding immediately. D. Face the client directly and speak in a low, monotone voice.: C. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding immediately.
  2. Which antidiarrheal agent should be used with caution in clients taking high dosages of aspirin for arthritis? A. Loperamide (Imodium). B. Probanthine (Propantheline). C. Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol). D. Diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine (Lomotil).: C. Bismuth subsalicy- late (Pepto Bismol).
  3. When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen (Tylenol), it is most important for the nurse to assess for pain in which area of the body? A. Flank. B. Abdomen. C. Chest. D. Head.: B. Abdomen.
  4. A client's dose of isosorbide dinitrate (Imdur) is increased from 40 mg to 60 mg PO daily. When the client reports the onset of a headache prior to the next scheduled dose, which action should the nurse implement?

A. Hold the next scheduled dose of Imdur 60 mg and administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol). B. Administer the 40 mg of Imdur and then contact the healthcare provider. C. Administer the 60 mg dose of Imdur and a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol). D. Do not administer the next dose of Imdur or any acetaminophen until notifying the healthcare provider.: C. Administer the 60 mg dose of Imdur and a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol).

  1. An adult client has prescriptions for morphine sulfate 2.5 mg IV every 6 hours and ketorolac (Toradol) 30 mg IV every 6 hours. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Administer both medications according to the prescription. B. Hold the ketorolac to prevent an antagonistic effect. C. Hold the morphine to prevent an additive drug interaction. D. Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the prescription.: A. Administer both medications according to the prescription.
  2. A client is receiving methylprednisolone 40 mg IV daily. The nurse should monitor which laboratory value closely? A. Serum glucose. B. Serum calcium. C. Red blood cells. D. Serum potassium.: A. Serum glucose.
  3. A client is receiving clonidine 0.1 mg/24 hr via transdermal patch. Which assessment finding indicates the desired effect of the medication has been achieved? A. Absence of nausea and vomiting. B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1. C. Denial of anginal pain and shortness of breath. D. Blood pressure from 180/120 mmHg to 140/70 mmHg.: D. Blood pressure from 180/120 mmHg to 140/70 mmHg.
  4. A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and

B. Instruct the client that facial flushing may occur. C. Apply continuous cardiac monitoring. D. Request that family members leave the room.: C. Apply continuous cardiac monitoring.

  1. A client with a dysrhythmia is prescribed procainamide (Pronestyl) in 4 divided doses over the next 24 hours. Which dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement? A. Every 6 hours. B. QID. C. AC and bedtime. D. PC and bedtime.: A. Every 6 hours.
  2. The nurse administers a dose of metoprolol for a client. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain? A. Temperature. B. Lung sounds. C. Blood pressure. D. Urinary output.: C. Blood pressure.
  3. A client is being treated for osteoporosis with alendronate (Fosamax), and the nurse has completed discharge teaching regarding medication adminis- tration. Which morning schedule would indicate to the nurse that the client teaching has been effective? A. Take medication, go for a 30 minute morning walk, then eat breakfast. B. Take medication, rest in bed for 30 minutes, eat breakfast, go for morning walk. C. Take medication with breakfast, then take a 30 minute morning walk. D. Go for a 30 minute morning walk, eat breakfast, then take medication.: A. Take medication, go for a 30 minute morning walk, then eat breakfast.
  4. A postoperative client receiving a continuous IV infusion of meperidine 35 mg/hr for the past four days has become increasingly restless and irritable, and begins to hallucinate. Which action should the nurse take first?

A. Administer a PRN dose of the PO lithium. B. Administer naloxone IV push. C. Decrease the IV infusion rate of the meperidine. D. Increase the IV infusion rate of the meperidine.: C. Decrease the IV infusion rate of the meperidine.

  1. A client being discharged is prescribed warfarin for the treatment following a pulmonary embolism. Which diagnostic test should the nurse instruct the client to receive once a month? A. Perfusion scan. B. Prothrombin Time (PT). C. Activated partial thromboplastin (aPTT). D. Serum Coumadin level (SCL).: B. Prothrombin Time (PT).
  2. A client with Parkinson's disease is taking carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet). Which observation by the nurse would indicate that the desired outcome of the medication is being achieved? A. Decreased blood pressure. B. Lessening of tremors. C. Increased salivation. D. Increased attention span.: B. Lessening of tremors.
  3. A client being treated for hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil (PTU) asks the nurse how the medication works. Which is the best response to give the client? A. It decreases the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood. B. It increases the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood. C. It enhances the amount of T4 and diminishes the amount of T produced by the thyroid. D. It inhibits the synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland.: D. It inhibits the synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland.
  4. A client with heart failure is being discharged with a new prescription for the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor captopril (Capoten). The nurse's discharge instructions should include

D. It slows down the gastric motor activity.: C. It helps maintain a gastric pH of 3.5 or above.