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Pediatric Nursing Latest Exam (Test Bank) 650+ Verified Questions 2025-2026, Exams of Nursing

eczema - correct answer>>atopic dermatitis is another name for what eczema - correct answer>>redness, scaliness, itching, minute papules (firm, elevated, circumscribed <1 cm in diameter) and vesciles (fluid filled) may indicate what impetigo - correct answer>>impetigo is a contagious bacterial infection of the skin caused by B-hemolytic streptococci or staphylococci, or both. It occurs most commonly in hot, humid months impetigo - correct answer>>this can occur because of poor hygiene; it can be a primary infection or occur secondarily at a site that has been injured or sustained an insect bite, or at a site that was originally a rash, such as atopic dermatitis or poison ivy or poison oak. 1. face 2. hands, neck, extremities - correct answer>>most common sites of impetigo impetigo - correct answer>>lesions begin as vesicles/pustules (virulent fluid) surrounded by edema/redness then progress to crusting stage. 1. contact isolation (incredibly contagious!)

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Pediatric Nursing Latest Exam (Test Bank) 650+
Verified Questions 2025-2026
eczema - correct answer>>atopic dermatitis is another name for what
eczema - correct answer>>redness, scaliness, itching, minute papules (firm, elevated,
circumscribed <1 cm in diameter) and vesciles (fluid filled) may indicate what
impetigo - correct answer>>impetigo is a contagious bacterial infection of the skin
caused by B-hemolytic streptococci or staphylococci, or both. It occurs most commonly
in hot, humid months
impetigo - correct answer>>this can occur because of poor hygiene; it can be a primary
infection or occur secondarily at a site that has been injured or sustained an insect bite,
or at a site that was originally a rash, such as atopic dermatitis or poison ivy or poison
oak.
1. face 2. hands, neck, extremities - correct answer>>most common sites of impetigo
impetigo - correct answer>>lesions begin as vesicles/pustules (virulent fluid) surrounded
by edema/redness then progress to crusting stage.
1. contact isolation (incredibly contagious!)
2. strict hygiene
3. lesions dry by air exposure - correct answer>>what are impetigo interventions?
- warm saline 2-3 x daily, followed by a mild soap or water to remove crusts and allow
for healing
- Burow's solution to soften crusts - correct answer>>what to apply to impetigo for
care?
48 hours - correct answer>>how long is impetigo contagious after start of antibiotic?
glomerulonephritis may result if the infectious agent is of a streptococcal type that can
affect the nephrons - correct answer>>why is antibiotic treatment so important to
adhere to with impetigo?
emollients - correct answer>>to prevent skin cracking in impetigo, instruct parents in
the use of ___
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Download Pediatric Nursing Latest Exam (Test Bank) 650+ Verified Questions 2025-2026 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

Pediatric Nursing Latest Exam (Test Bank) 650+

Verified Questions 2025 - 2026

eczema - correct answer>>atopic dermatitis is another name for what eczema - correct answer>>redness, scaliness, itching, minute papules (firm, elevated, circumscribed <1 cm in diameter) and vesciles (fluid filled) may indicate what impetigo - correct answer>>impetigo is a contagious bacterial infection of the skin caused by B-hemolytic streptococci or staphylococci, or both. It occurs most commonly in hot, humid months impetigo - correct answer>>this can occur because of poor hygiene; it can be a primary infection or occur secondarily at a site that has been injured or sustained an insect bite, or at a site that was originally a rash, such as atopic dermatitis or poison ivy or poison oak.

  1. face 2. hands, neck, extremities - correct answer>>most common sites of impetigo impetigo - correct answer>>lesions begin as vesicles/pustules (virulent fluid) surrounded by edema/redness then progress to crusting stage.
  2. contact isolation (incredibly contagious!)
  3. strict hygiene
  4. lesions dry by air exposure - correct answer>>what are impetigo interventions?
  • warm saline 2-3 x daily, followed by a mild soap or water to remove crusts and allow for healing
  • Burow's solution to soften crusts - correct answer>>what to apply to impetigo for care? 48 hours - correct answer>>how long is impetigo contagious after start of antibiotic? glomerulonephritis may result if the infectious agent is of a streptococcal type that can affect the nephrons - correct answer>>why is antibiotic treatment so important to adhere to with impetigo? emollients - correct answer>>to prevent skin cracking in impetigo, instruct parents in the use of ___

all linens and clothing used by the child should be washed with detergent in hot water separately from linens and clothing of other household members - correct answer>>how should impetigo clothes/linens be washed? bedding and clothing should be changed daily, laundered in hot water with detergent, and dried in a hot dryer for 20 minutes; continued for 1 week - correct answer>>how should clothes be cared for with a person with lice? 2 - correct answer>>instruct parents of children with lice that nonessential bedding and clothing can be stored in a tightly sealed bag for ____ weeks and then washed lice - correct answer>>in what disease should the parents vacuum furniture and carpets frequently and dust bag discarded after vacuuming? scabies - correct answer>>pruritic papular rash indicative of what a topical application of scabicide like permethrin (Elimite), lindane - correct answer>>what is used to treat scabies? is should not be used on children less than 2 years old because of risk of neurotoxicity and seizures - correct answer>>what are precautions with lindane to treat scabies? how is permethrin applied? (scabies) - correct answer>>apply to cool dry skin at least 30 minutes after bathing; the cream is massaged thoroughly and gently into all skin surfaces (not just the areas that have the rash) from the head to the soles of the feet (avoid contact with the eyes), left on the skin for 8 to 14 hours, and then removed by bathing; a repeat treatment may be necessary all clothing, bedding, and pillowcases need to be changed daily, washed in hot water with detergent, dried in a hot dryer, and ironed before reuse; this process should continue for 1 week - correct answer>>how should clothes of scabies be cared for? 4 days - correct answer>>how long should non-necessary toys and other items be sealed in a plastic bag for with scabies? 10 - correct answer>>in children, burns involving more than ____% of the total body surface area require some form of fluid resuscitation as a percentage of the total body surface area using age related charts - correct answer>>how are burns measured in pediatric client?

aplastic crisis: caused by diminished production and increased destruction of RBCs, triggered by viral infection or depletion of folic acid - correct answer>>manifestations: profound anemia and pallor YES! Incredibly: pneumococcal, meningococcal, and annual influenza vaccine - correct answer>>is it important for a child with sickle to receive vaccinations? Administration is avoided because of the risk of normeperidine- induced seizures - correct answer>>why is the administration of meperidine (Demerol) avoided in sickle cell? microcytic/hypochromic - correct answer>>iron deficiency anemia is a ___ and __ anemia z track - correct answer>>what type of injection for iron administration? determined by bone marrow aspiration (shows conversion of red bone marrow to fatty bone marrow) - correct answer>>what is definitive diagnosis of aplastic anemia? focuses on restoring function to the bone marrow and involves immunosuppressive therapy and bone marrow transplantation (treatment of choice if a suitable donor exists) - correct answer>>treatment for aplastic anemia aplastic anemia - correct answer>>anti-lymphocyte globulin or anti-thymocyte globulin may be prescribed to suppress autoimmune response in what; colony stimulating factors may be prescribed to enhance bone marrow production; corticosteroids adn cyclosporine (sandimmune) may be prescribed, may need blood transfusions Hemophilia A or classic hemophilia - correct answer>>factor VIII definiciency may also be known as what Hemophilia B or Christmas - correct answer>>factor IX deficiency may also be known as what X- males are affected most - correct answer>>hemophilia is an __ linked recessive genetic disorder. who are affected most? DDAVP (synthetic form of vasopressin) - correct answer>>___, a synthetic form of vasopressin, increases plasma factor VIII and may be prescribed to treat mild hemophilia

von Willebrand disease - correct answer>>this disorder causes platelets to adhere to damaged endothelium; the ___ _____ factor protein also serves as a carrier protein for factor VIII von Willebrand disease - correct answer>>this is characterized by an increased tendency to bleed from mucous membranes Thalassemia major - correct answer>>this type of thalassemia results in severe anemia that requires transfusion to sustain life (Cooley's anemia) Thalassemia intermedia - correct answer>>This is manifested as splenomegaly and moderate to severe anemia thalassemia trait - correct answer>>This produces mild microcytic anemia of thalassemia thalassemia minor - correct answer>>This is an asymptomatic silent carrier case of thalassemia B thalassemia major - correct answer>>this is characterized by an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the reduced production of one of the globin chains in the synthesis of hemoglobin (both parents must be carriers to produce a child with beta thalassemia major) supportive; the goal of therapy is to maintain normal hemoglobin levels by the administration of blood transfusions, may need bone marrow transplantation and splenectomy - correct answer>>what is treatment for Beta thalassemia major? B thalassemia major - correct answer>>s/sx: frontal bossing, maxillary prominence, wide set eyes with a flattened nose, greenish yellow skin tone, hepatosplenomegaly, severe anemia, and microcytic/hypochromic red blood cells with chelation therapy: Exjade or deferoxamine (Desferal) may be prescribed to treat it and prevent organ damage from the elevated levels of iron caused by multiple transfusion therapy. - correct answer>>how is iron overload treated in B thalassemia major? acute lymphocytic leukemia - correct answer>>____ _____ ______ is the most frequent type of cancer in children

hodgkin's - correct answer>>reed sternburg cells are characteristic of which disease mid-adolescence - correct answer>>peak incidence of hodgkin's disease is what age group hodgkin's - correct answer>>s/sx: enlarged, firm, nontender, moveable lymph nodes in teh supraclavicular area, nonproductive cough (mediastinal lymphadenopathy), abdominal pain, advanced lymph node with systemic complications sentinel - correct answer>>in children, the "____" node near the left clavical may be malaise - correct answer>>what is the most common side effect of extensive radiation do not remove skin markings, wash kin daily, using a mild soap sparingly - correct answer>>how to treat dry or moist desquamation from radiation wilms' - correct answer>>_____ is the most common intraabdominal and kidney tumor of childhood; it may manifest unilaterally and localized or bilaterally, sometimes with metastasis to other organs 3 years - correct answer>>what is the peak incidence of wilms' tumor? nephroblastoma (wilms' tumor) - correct answer>>occurrence is associated with genetic inheritance and with several congenital anomalies (type of tumor) wilms' tumor - correct answer>>s/sx: swelling or mass within the abdomen (mass ic characteristically firm, nontender, confined to one side, or deep within the flank), urinary retention/hematuria, anemia, pallor, anorexia, and lethargy, hypertension (caused by excessive release of renin from kidney tumor), weight loss and fever, sx: of lung involvement: dyspnea, SOB, and pain in the chest if metastasis has occurred do not palpate abdomen - correct answer>>what is a very specific intervention for wilms' tumor neuroblastoma - correct answer>>_______ is a tumor that originates from the embryonic neural crest cells that normally give rise to the adrenal medulla and the sympathetic ganglia in the adrenal gland; other sites may be head, neck, chest, or pelvis - correct answer>>where do most neuroblastomas develop?

10 - correct answer>>most children present with neuroblastoma before _____ years of age neuroblastoma - correct answer>>diagnostic evaluation for this type of tumor is aimed at locating the primary site of the tumor; analyzing the breakdown products excreted in the urine, namely vanillylmandelic acid, homovanillic acid, dopamine, and norepinephrine, permits detection of suspected tumor before and after medical-surgical intervention poor - correct answer>>what is the prognosis of neuroblastoma? younger - correct answer>>the _____ the child is at dx. of a neuroblastoma, the better the survival rate neuroblastoma - correct answer>>s/sx: firm, nontender, irregular mass in teh abdomen that crosses the midline. Urinary frequency/retention from compression of the kidney, ureter, or bladder, lymphadenopathy, bone pain if skeletal involvement, supraorbital ecchymosis**, periorbital edema, and exopthalamos as a result of invasion of retrobulbar soft tissue, other typical cancer signs osteosarcoma; osteogenic sarcoma - correct answer>>_____ is the most common bone cancer in children; also known as ___ ____ in the long bones; mostly lower extremities, femur - correct answer>>where does osteosarcoma most commonly originate? 10 - 25 years - correct answer>>what is the peak incidence of ____ and _____

  1. surgical resection
  2. chemotherapy - correct answer>>treatment for osteosarcoma
  3. nephrectomy
  4. chemotherapy with or without radiation - correct answer>>treatment for wilms'
  5. extensive external radiation
  6. more extensive disease: radiation and multi-drug chemotherapy - correct answer>>treatment for hodgkin's

potassium is prescribed for IV administration, ensure that the child has voided before administering and has adequate renal function phenylketonuria - correct answer>>this is a genetic autosomal recessive disorder that results in CNS damage from toxic levels of phenylalanine (an essential amino acid in the blood) phenylketonuria - correct answer>>phenylketonuria: characterized by blood levels > ______ mg/dL (normal is 1.2-3.4 in newborns and 0.8-1.8 thereafter). true - correct answer>>T/F it is a requirement to be screened for phenylketonuria phenylketonuria - correct answer>>s/sx: digestive problems and vomiting, seizures, musty odor of urine, mental retardation.. in older children: eczema, hypertonia, hypopigmentation of the hair, skin, irises, and hyperactive behavior dehydration - correct answer>>weight loss, high pulse, orthostatic BP, irritability, thirst, dry mucous membranes, sunken fontanel, ndelayed cap refill, tachypnea, and increased urine specific gravity are signs of what rescreen newborns by 14 days - correct answer>>if a newborn has a positive Phenyl. test before 48 hours of age, what is protocol? candida thrives in hyperglycemic tissues - correct answer>>vaginitis in adolescent girls (caused by candida) may be indicative of diabetes- why? normal meals: no special foods or supplements. Dietary intake should include three well balanced meals per day, eaten at regular intervals, plus a midafternoon snack and a bedtime snack; a consistent intake of the prescribed protein, fats, and carbs and a snack is needed (concentrated sweets are discouraged and fat is reduced to 30% or less of total caloric requirements). - correct answer>>what is the typical diet plan for a child with diabetes? 10 - 15 g of carbs for every 30-45 minutes of activity - correct answer>>what is the carb intake rule with increased activity? blood - correct answer>>is blood glucose monitoring or urine testing more accurate for glucose? ring finger or thumb - correct answer>>what samples to get a blood sample for glucose

the second voided urine - correct answer>>which urine specimen is most accurate for ketones and glucose (the first, second, etc.) 300 - correct answer>>in diabetic ketoacidosis the blood glucose level greater than ____ mg/dL, and urine and serum ketone tests positive diabetic ketoacidosis - correct answer>>s/sx: hyperglycemia, Kussmaul's respirations, acetone (fruity breath), increasing lethargy, and decreasing LOC

  • BG >200 continually
  • moderate/high ketonuria
  • child is unable to take foods/fluids
  • child vomits more than once
  • illness persists rules:
  • test blood glucose every 4 hours
  • test for urinary ketones with each voiding
  • follow the child's usual meal plan
  • encourage rest
  • notify the HCP if vomiting, fruity odor to the breath, deep rapid respirations, decreasing level of consciousness, or persistent hyperglycemia occurs - correct answer>>instruct parents to notify HCP when the child has what with DM hypokalemia (insulin drives K into the cell) - correct answer>>what to watch for when administering IV insulin for Diabetic ketoacidosis aspirin and ibuprofen (not aspirin due to Reye's syndrome) - correct answer>>most common antipyretics metabolic alkalosis - correct answer>>metabolic disturbance with vomiting pyloric stenosis or ICP - correct answer>>what is projectile vomiting caused by in children rotavirus - correct answer>>____ is a cause of serious gastroenteritis and is a nosocomial (hospital-acquired) pathogen that is most severe in children 3-24 months of age; children younger than 3 months have maternally acquired antibody protection

cleft palate repair - correct answer>>feedings are resumed by bottle, breast, or cup per surgeon preference; some surgeons prescribe use of an asepto syringe for feeding or a soft cup like a sippy cup after what type of surgery no - correct answer>>can a child with a cleft palate repair brush his/her teeth? no, and avoid offering hard foods like toast/cookies - correct answer>>can you oral suction after a cleft palate repair? aspiration - correct answer>>if both segments of esophagus connect by fistulous tracts to trachea, what is a big concern esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula - correct answer>>this is a condition where the esophagus terminates before it reaches the stomach ending in a blind pouch, or a fistula is present that forms an unnatural connection with the trachea esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula - correct answer>>this condition causes oral intake to enter the lungs or a large amount of air to enter the somach, presenting a risk of coughing and choking; severe abdominal distention can occur, aspiration pneumonia and severe respiratory distress may develop, and death is likely to occur without surgical intervention esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula - correct answer>>treatment includes maintenance of a patent airway, prevention of aspiration pneumonia, gastric/blind pouch decompression, supportive therapy and surgical repair esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula - correct answer>>s/sx: frothy saliva in the mouth and nose and excessive drooling, the 3 Cs - coughing, choking during feedings and unexplained cyanosis, regurgitation and vomiting, abdominal distention, increased respiratory distress during and after feeding

  • radiant warmer,
  • upright supine (at least 30 degrees)
  • suction - correct answer>>preop interventions for esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula:
  • may be placed in a ___ ____ for humidified oxygen to be administered
  • NPO status
  • IV fluids
  • Monitor respiratory status
  • suction accumulated secretions from mouth and pharynx
  • maintain in a ___ ___ position (to facilitate drainage and prevent aspiration of gastric secretions)
  • keep the blind pouch empty of secretions by ____ as prescribed; monitor its patency closely
    • gastrostomy tube care
  • broad spectrum antibiotics if one is inserted, it may be left open so that air entering the stomach through the fistula can escape, minimizing the risk of regurgitation of gastric contents into the trachea - correct answer>>how to care for gastrostomy tube with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula anastomotic leaks - correct answer>>in a child with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, purulent drainage from the chest tube, increased temp, and increased WBC may indicate what 5 - 7 - correct answer>>in a child with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, if a gastrostomy tube is present, it is usually attached to gravity drainage until the infant can tolerate feedings and the anastomosis is healed (usually __ to __ days); then feedings are prescribed esophagogram - correct answer>>after a esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula repair, but before feeding, prepare for an ___ as prescribed to check the integrity of the esophageal anastomosis stomach - correct answer>>before feeding after an esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula repair, elevate the gastrostomy tube and secure it above the level of the ________ to allow gastric secretions to pass to the duodenum and swallowed air to escape through the open gastrostomy tube sterile water - correct answer>>administer oral feedings with ___ ____, followed by frequent small feedings of formula as prescribed post esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula repair when they cannot handle secretions - correct answer>>when should an infant not use a pacifier? assess, remove accumulated drainage frequently, apply protective ointment, barrier dressing or collective device as prescribed - correct answer>>how to handle drainage

NG tube for gastric decompression - correct answer>>what would you expect to have placed prior to a pyloromyotomy yes; encourage consumption of small amounts of dairy foods daily to help colonic bacteria adapt to ingested lactose - correct answer>>should children with lactose intolerance be able to have ANY dairy? calcium/vitamin D - correct answer>>a child with a lactose intolerance can develop ___ and ___ deficiency. Instruct the parents about the parents about importance of supplements glutamine - correct answer>>celiac disease results in the accumulation of the amino acid _____, which is toxic to intestinal mucosal cells celiac - correct answer>>in this disease, intestinal villous atrophy occurs, which affects absorption of ingested nutrients. Sx. of this disorder usually occur between 1 and 5 years. celiac - correct answer>>s/sx: acute or insidious diarrhea, steatorrhea, anorexia, abdominal pain and distention, muscle wasting, vomiting, anemia, irritability celiac crisis - correct answer>>characterized by profuse watery diarrhea and vomiting, can lead to severe acidosis, precipiatated by fasting, infection, or ingestion of gluten yes - correct answer>>can individuals with celiac eat corn, rice, or millet? no! - correct answer>>can individuals with celiac eat wheat, rye, oats, or barley? iron, folic acid, fat soluble vitamines (ADEK) - correct answer>>what additional minerals/supplements should be administered for celiac disease? yes - correct answer>>is puffed rice, cornflakes, cornmeal allowed in celiac? gluten - correct answer>>commercially prepared ice cream, malted milk, prepared puddings, and grains; anything like breads, rolls, cookies, cakes, crackers, cereal, spaghetti, macaroni noodles, beer, ale all contain what right lower quadrant - correct answer>>where is pain located with appendicitis?

McBurney's point - correct answer>>abdominal pain most intense at ____ ______ indicates appendicitis peritoneal - correct answer>>referred pain from appendicitis indicates the presence of ____ irritation appendicitis - correct answer>>rebound tenderness with abdominal rigidity, elevated WBC count, side lying with abdominal guarding to relieve pain, difficulty walking and pain in the right hip, low grade fever, and anorexia, nausea, and vomiting after pain develops, diarrhea s/sx. of what perforated appendix - correct answer>>an indicated of a ____ ___ is the sudden relief of pain and then a subsequent increase in pain accompanied by right guarding of the abdomen NO- it may mask sx. of perforation - correct answer>>should you administer pain meds for appendicitis? position in a right side-lying or low to semi-Fowler's position to promote comfort - correct answer>>what position for appendicitis? yes- apply ice packs to the abdomen for 20 to 30 minutes every hour, avoid application of heat (also avoid laxatives/enemas) - correct answer>>can you apply ice or heat for appendicits? penrose - correct answer>>if perforation from appendicitis occurred, what type of drain would you expect post operatively? low to semi-Fowlers - correct answer>>position the child in a right-side lying or ______ with legs slightly flexed to facilitate drainage for post op appendectomy hirschsprung's disease - correct answer>>this is a congenital anomaly also known as congenital agonglionosis or aganglionic megacolon. This disease may be a familial congenital defect or may be associated with other anomalies, such as Down syndrome and GU abnormalities hirschsprung's disease - correct answer>>mechanical obstruction results from this because of inadequate motility in an intestinal segment

intussusception - correct answer>>telescoping of one portion of the bowel into another portion, the condition results in obstruction to the passage of intestinal contents intussusception - correct answer>>s/sx: colicky abdominal pain that causes the child to scream and draw the knees to the abdomen, similar to the fetal position, vomiting of gastric contents, bile-stained fecal emesis, currant jelly like stools containnig blood and mucus, hypoactive/hyperactive, tender distended abdomen, possibly with palpable sausage shaped mass in upper right quadrant perforation and shock - correct answer>>in intussusception monitor for signs of __ and __ as evidenced by fever, increased HR, changes in LOC or BP, and respiratory distress, and report immediately the passage of normal, brown stool - correct answer>>what indicates that intussusception has reduced itself? hydrostatic reduction - correct answer>>in ___ ___, used for intussusception, air fluid is used to exert pressure on area involved to lessen, diminish, or rid the intestine of prolapse omphalocele - correct answer>>this refers to herniation of the abdominal contents through the umbilical ring, usually with an intact peritoneal sac it is covered by a transclucent sac that may contain bowel or other abdominal organs. Immediately after birth, the sac is covered with sterile gauze soaked in normal saline to prevent drying of abdominal contents; a layer of plastic wrap is placed over the gauze to provide additional protection against moisture loss. - correct answer>>what to cover the protrusion of omphalocele with omphalocele - correct answer>>for a child with this disease: maintain NPO status, administer IV fluids as prescribed to maintain hydration and electrolyte balance, monitor for signs of infection, and handle the infant carefully to prevent rupture of the sac gastroschisis - correct answer>>this occurs when the herniation of the intestine is lateral to the umbilical ring no - correct answer>>Does a membrane cover the exposed bowel in gastroschisis

cover it loosely in saline-soaked pads, and the abdomen is loosely wrapped in a plastic drape; wrapping directly around the exposed bowel is contraindicated because if the exposed bowel expands, wrapping could cause pressure and necrosis - correct answer>>how to treat the exposed bowel in gastroschisis gastroschisis - correct answer>>in this situation, most infants develop prolonged ileus, require mechanical ventilation, and need parenteral nutrition; otherwise, care is similar to that for omphalocele umbilical hernia - correct answer>>soft swelling or protrusion around the umbilicus that is usually reducible with a finger inguinal hernia - correct answer>>this refers to a pinless inguinal swelling that is reducible, swelling may disappear during periods of rest and is most noticeable when the infant cries/coughs incarcerated hernia - correct answer>>this occurs when the descended portion of the bowel becomes tightly caught in the hernial sac, compromising blood supply- it is a medical emergency requiring surgical repair incarcerated hernia - correct answer>>s/sx: irritability, tenderness at site, anorexia, abdominal distention, and difficulty defacating. Complete intestinal obstruction and gangrene may occur noncommunicating hydrocele - correct answer>>this occurs when residual peritoneal fluid is trapped with no communication to the peritoneal cavity 1 - correct answer>>noncommunicating hydrocele usually disappears by age ___ year communicating hydrocele - correct answer>>this is associated with a hernia that remains open from the scrotum to the abdominal cavity communicating hydrocele - correct answer>>assessment includes a bulge in the inguinal area or the scrotum that increases with crying or straining and decreases when the infant is at rest provide ice bags and a scrotal support to relieve pain and swelling. Instruct the child and parents to avoid tub mathing until the incision heals. Avoid strenuous physical activity - correct answer>>what is a post op intervention for hydrocele