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Nursing Fundamental Skills Exam Practice Questions & Correctly Detailed Answers, Exams of Computer Fundamentals

Nursing Fundamental Skills Exam Practice Questions & Correctly Detailed Answers With Rationale Updated Solution Nursing Fundamental Skills Exam Practice Questions & Correctly Detailed Answers With Rationale Updated Solution Nursing Fundamental Skills Exam Practice Questions & Correctly Detailed Answers With Rationale Updated Solution

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Nursing
Fundamental
Skills
Exam
Practice
Questions
&
Correctly
Detailed
Answers
With
Rationale
Updated
Solution
Nursing Fundamental Skills Exam Practice
Questions
& Correctly Detailed Answers With Rationale Updated
Solution
1. Which safety measure(s) should be included in the plan of care for a client with an internal
radiation implant. Select all that apply.
1. Wear a lead shield when in the client's room
2. Place the client in a room with a cohort client
3. Limit the time with the client to 1 hour per shift
4. Wear a dosimeter badge when entering the client's room
5. Save bed linens and any dressings until the implant is removed - ✔✔✔ - 1. Answer: 1, 4, 5
Rationale: The nurse should wear a lead shield when in the client's room to protect self from the
radiation that may be emitted from the implant. Additionally a dosimeter badge is worn to measure the
amount of radiation exposure. Bed linens and dressings removed from the client are saved in case the
implant was accidentally dislodged and this event was not discovered until the time when the health
care provider attempts to remove it (linens and dressings may need to be checked). The client needs to
be placed in a private room. The time that the nurse spends in a room of a client with an internal
radiation implant is 30 minutes per 8-hour shift. • Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, care to the
client with an internal radiation implant. Use principles of time, distance, and shielding. Think about
the potential exposure to radiation that can occur to assist in answering correctly. Review:
interventions for the client with an internal radiation implant.
2. An adolescent client with a surgically wired jaw has a prescription for a full liquid diet. The nurse
should implement which action to promote the client's compliance with this diet prescription?
1. Offer chocolate milkshakes between meals
2. Explain to the adolescent the importance of good nutrition
3. Offer commercial nutritional supplements 4 to 6 times per day
4. Ask about food preferences and blenderize these foods into liquids - ✔✔✔ - 2. Answer: 4
Rationale: An adolescent may dislike a diet that is only liquids and may be at risk for noncompliance.
Thus, it is important to have the client participate in as much decision making in the diet as possible.
While blenderized foods may be unappealing under many circumstances, the nutrient value is
unchanged. The client will be able to ingest the same foods eaten prior to the jaw fracture. The chocolate
milkshakes may increase intake, but decreases the nutrient value. Adolescents may or may not respond
to reasoning and explanations. The commercial nutritional supplements may be beneficial, but they are
costly and may not be appealing to the client's taste. • Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, and
use theories of growth and development to answer this question.
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Nursing Fundamental Skills Exam Practice Questions

& Correctly Detailed Answers With Rationale Updated

Solution

  1. Which safety measure(s) should be included in the plan of care for a client with an internal radiation implant. Select all that apply.
  2. Wear a lead shield when in the client's room
  3. Place the client in a room with a cohort client
  4. Limit the time with the client to 1 hour per shift
  5. Wear a dosimeter badge when entering the client's room
  6. Save bed linens and any dressings until the implant is removed - ✔✔✔ - 1. Answer: 1, 4, 5 Rationale: The nurse should wear a lead shield when in the client's room to protect self from the radiation that may be emitted from the implant. Additionally a dosimeter badge is worn to measure the amount of radiation exposure. Bed linens and dressings removed from the client are saved in case the implant was accidentally dislodged and this event was not discovered until the time when the health care provider attempts to remove it (linens and dressings may need to be checked). The client needs to be placed in a private room. The time that the nurse spends in a room of a client with an internal radiation implant is 30 minutes per 8-hour shift. • Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, care to the client with an internal radiation implant. Use principles of time, distance, and shielding. Think about the potential exposure to radiation that can occur to assist in answering correctly. • Review: interventions for the client with an internal radiation implant.
  7. An adolescent client with a surgically wired jaw has a prescription for a full liquid diet. The nurse should implement which action to promote the client's compliance with this diet prescription?
  8. Offer chocolate milkshakes between meals
  9. Explain to the adolescent the importance of good nutrition
  10. Offer commercial nutritional supplements 4 to 6 times per day
  11. Ask about food preferences and blenderize these foods into liquids - ✔✔✔ - 2. Answer: 4 Rationale: An adolescent may dislike a diet that is only liquids and may be at risk for noncompliance. Thus, it is important to have the client participate in as much decision making in the diet as possible. While blenderized foods may be unappealing under many circumstances, the nutrient value is unchanged. The client will be able to ingest the same foods eaten prior to the jaw fracture. The chocolate milkshakes may increase intake, but decreases the nutrient value. Adolescents may or may not respond to reasoning and explanations. The commercial nutritional supplements may be beneficial, but they are costly and may not be appealing to the client's taste. • Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, and use theories of growth and development to answer this question.

Remember that an adolescent is generally more compliant with a difficult regimen when there is some ability to make choices. • Review: dietary guidelines for the client following jaw surgery.

  1. The nurse determines that the client understands the elements of follow-up care after a bone scan if the client states that he or she should perform which action( s)? Select all that apply.
  2. Resume the usual diet
  3. Ambulate at least three times before the end of the day
  4. Drink plenty of water for a day or two following the procedure
  5. Report any feelings of nausea or flushing to the health care provider
  6. Remain isolated in a room for 24 hours to prevent exposure of the radioisotope materials to others
  • ✔✔✔ - 3. Answer: 1, 3 Rationale: There are no special restrictions after a bone scan. The client can resume the usual diet. There are no specific activity guidelines. The client is encouraged to drink large amounts of water for 24 to 48 hours to flush the radioisotope from the system. Nausea and flushing could accompany dye injection during a procedure, but this procedure uses radioisotopes, not dye. There are no hazards to the client or others from the minimal amount of radioactivity of the isotope. • Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, follow-up after a bone scan. Think about the procedure for a bone scan and note that the question relates to care after the procedure. Remember, the client can resume the usual diet and fluids to hasten elimination of the isotope from the client's system. • Review: client instructions after bone scan.
  1. The nurse prepares to bathe and change the bed linens of a client with localized herpes zoster. The lesions are open and draining a scant amount of serous fluid. Which precaution should the nurse ensure is followed by all health care workers?
  2. Contact
  3. Droplet
  4. Airborne
  5. Standard - ✔✔✔ - 4. Answer: 1 Rationale: The client with localized herpes zoster who has lesions that are open and draining should be isolated and placed on contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection to others. This communicable disease is not transmitted through air or droplets, unless it has become disseminated; therefore options 2 and 3 are incorrect. This client requires additional transmission-based precautions; therefore option 4 is insufficient. • Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, and that the client in this question has lesions that are open and draining. In addition, recall how this disease is transmitted to direct you to the correct option. • Review: transmission-based precautions.
  6. The nurse finds an infant unconscious and suspects a foreign-body airway obstruction (FBAO). The nurse plans to relieve the obstruction by performing which action?

that options 2, 3, and 4 are comparable or alike because they are unrelated to fluid balance in the body. • Review: fluid volume deficit.

  1. The nurse should take which action to accurately determine the length of a nasogastric tube for insertion in an adult client?
  2. Place the tube at the tip of the nose and measure by extending the tube to the umbilicus
  3. Place the tube at the tip of the nose and measure by extending the tube midway between the umbilicus and symphysis pubis
  4. Place the tube at the tip of the nose and measure by extending the tube to the earlobe and then down to the xiphoid process
  5. Place the tube at the tip of the nose and measure by extending the tube to the earlobe and then down to the top of the sternum - ✔✔✔ - 8. Answer: 3 Rationale: Measuring the length of tube needed is done by placing the tube at the tip of the client's nose and extending the tube to the earlobe and then down to the xiphoid process. The average length for an adult is about 22 to 26 inches. Options 1, 2, and 4 are inaccurate methods of measurement. • Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, insertion of a nasogastric tube. Visualize this procedure. Remember the acronym NEX (which stands for nose, earlobe, xiphoid process) to assist in answering questions similar to this one. • Review: nasogastric tube insertion procedures.
  6. The nurse auscultates bowel sounds and suspects an intestinal obstruction in a client with a bowel tumor if which is heard?
  7. Resonance
  8. Diminished sounds
  9. High-pitched sounds
  10. Absent bowel sounds in all four quadrants - ✔✔✔ - 9. Answer: 3 Rationale: High-pitched tinkling sounds are indicative of an intestinal obstruction. Absent or diminished sounds may be indicative of a paralytic ileus. Resonance is not a finding of auscultation. • Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate options 2 and 4 first because they are comparable or alike. Next, focus on the subject, the assessment findings in an intestinal obstruction. This will direct you to the correct option. • Review: bowel sounds.
  11. The nursing instructor is observing a nursing student transfer a client from the bed to the chair. The instructor intervenes if the student is observed performing which action?
  12. Keeping the back, neck, pelvis, and feet aligned
  13. Flexing the knees and keeping the feet wide apart
  14. Encouraging the client to assist as much as possible
  15. Positioning self as far away from the client as possible - ✔✔✔ - 10. Answer: 4

Rationale: When transferring a client, the person performing the transfer should position self as close to the client or object being transferred as possible. The back, neck, pelvis, and feet of the person should remain aligned. Flexing the knees and keeping the feet wide apart will assist in preventing injury to the back. Encouraging the client to assist as much as possible will reduce strain on the person assisting with the transfer. • Test-Taking Strategy: Focusing on the subject, transferring a client from a bed to a chair. Noting the word "intervenes" indicates the need to select an incorrect action by the student. Recalling that positioning self close to the client or object to be moved is indicated during transfer will direct you to this option. • Review: ergonomic principles.

  1. The pulse point to use when assessing a pulse in an infant is located in which area?
  2. Radial
  3. Carotid
  4. Brachial
  5. Popliteal - ✔✔✔ - 11. Answer: 3 Rationale: When assessing a pulse in an infant (younger than 1 year of age), the pulse should be checked at the brachial artery because the relatively short, fat neck of an infant makes palpation of the carotid artery difficult. Likewise, the pulse would be difficult to palpate at the radial or popliteal site in an infant. • Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, palpating a pulse in an infant. Use knowledge of infant anatomy and body structure to direct you to the correct option. • Review: assessment of vital signs in an infant.
  6. The nurse is caring for an 18-month-old child who has been diagnosed with scabies. The health care provider has prescribed Lindane to be applied to the skin to treat the infection. The nurse should take which most appropriate action at this time?
  7. Apply the medication to the child's skin.
  8. Contact the health care provider for clarification.
  9. Assess the parent's knowledge of the use of this medication.
  10. Provide instructions to the parents of the child for application of the medication. - ✔✔✔ - 12. Answer: 2 Rationale: Lindane should not be administered to children younger than 2 years of age because of the risk of neurotoxicity; therefore, the nurse should contact the health care provider for further clarification. Options 1, 3, and 4 indicate administration of this medication, which is an unsafe action.
  • Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words "most appropriate." Note the age of the child in the question as it relates to this medication. In addition, note that options 1, 3, and 4 are comparable or alike in that they indicate administration of the medication before seeking clarification. • Review: medications to treat scabies.
  1. Which communication strategies should the nurse use when working with a client who has difficulty speaking as a result of weakness? Select all that apply.

Rationale: To maximize the effectiveness of chest compressions, the person administering CPR needs to avoid letting the fingers rest on the chest. This also helps prevent accidental injury to internal organs. The actions listed in the other options are all part of correct CPR chest compression procedures. • Test- Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words "needs additional teaching." These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect option as the answer. Visualize each action in the options to direct you to the correct option. • Review: basic life support.

  1. The nurse is performing catheter care for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action, if performed by the nurse, is indicative of unsafe practice?
  2. The nurse performs hand hygiene before and after the procedure.
  3. The nurse removes the anchor device to free the catheter tubing before cleaning.
  4. The nurse cleans from the area of most contamination to the area of least contamination.
  5. The nurse places a waterproof pad under the client and applies clean gloves before the procedure.
  • ✔✔✔ - 16. Answer: 3 Rationale: When performing catheter care on a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, the nurse should perform hand hygiene before and after the procedure to reduce the spread of infection. The nurse should place a waterproof pad under the client and apply clean gloves before the procedure. The anchor device should be removed to free the catheter tubing before cleaning. The nurse should clean from the area of least contamination to the area of most contamination to reduce the spread of infection.
  • Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, an action performed by the nurse that is indicative of unsafe practice. Recall that cleaning from the most contaminated area to the least contaminated can potentially spread infection. • Review: indwelling urinary catheter care.
  1. The prescription for a client reads "cleansing enemas until clear." The nurse has administered a total of three enemas, and the output is liquid brown. The nurse notifies the health care provider, understanding that continued administration can result in which outcome?
  2. Acid-base imbalances
  3. Blood pressure changes
  4. Electrolyte disturbances
  5. Blood glucose alterations - ✔✔✔ - 17. Answer: 3 Rationale: If the nurse has a prescription indicating "enemas until clear," the nurse can administer up to three enemas (or per agency policy). If the output has not become clear after the third enema, the nurse should notify the health care provider because continued administration could result in electrolyte disturbances. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not complications specifically associated with this procedure. • Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, of the question, enema administration. Visualizing the procedure and recalling its physiological effects will direct you to the correct option.
  • Review: enema administration.
  1. The nurse understands that which identifies a correct principle of surgical asepsis?
  1. A sterile package that becomes wet is unsterile
  2. The nurse should hold sterile objects below waist level
  3. A 3-inch border around the edges of a sterile field are considered contaminated
  4. Prolonged exposure to air will not contaminate a sterile field as long as the client's room windows and doors are kept closed - ✔✔✔ - 18. Answer: 1 Rationale: When a sterile object becomes wet, the object becomes contaminated by capillary action from contact with unsterile materials. Any sterile object held below waist level is considered contaminated because it cannot be viewed at all times. A 1-inch border around the edges of a sterile field is considered contaminated. A sterile field becomes contaminated by prolonged exposure to air.
  • Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, surgical asepsis. Read and visualize each option. Recalling the principles of asepsis will direct you to the correct option. • Review: surgical asepsis procedures.
  1. An older client has been lying in bed for 2 hours. The nurse who is repositioning this client would be most concerned with examining which area( s) of the client" s body? Select all that apply.
  2. Heels
  3. Sacrum
  4. Back of the head
  5. Back of the knees
  6. Greater trochanter
  7. Palms of the hand - ✔✔✔ - 19. Answer: 1, 2, 3, 5 Rationale: Areas at risk for skin breakdown due to immobilization are found over bony prominences of the body. The nurse should pay special attention to the heels, sacrum, back of the head, and the greater trochanter. The back of the knees and the palms of the hand are not bony prominence areas and are at a lower risk for skin breakdown due to immobilization. • Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word "most" and visualize the client lying in bed and the location of the bony prominences to assist in answering the question. • Review: areas at risk for developing pressure ulcers.
  8. As prescribed, the nurse is applying a dressing to a client's wound that allows wound visualization, is waterproof, and is painless on removal. Which type of dressing material is being used?
  9. Hydrogel
  10. Cotton gauze
  11. Hydrocolloidal
  12. Adhesive transparent - ✔✔✔ - 20. Answer: 3 Rationale: Hydrocolloidal dressing material provides absorption, protection, and debridement. This type of dressing material is waterproof and painless on removal. Hydrogel dressing material provides
  1. The nurse is administering enteral feedings via a nasogastric (NG) tube. The nurse should take which action when caring for this client to maintain client safety?
  2. Keep the client in a supine position
  3. Change the NG tube with every other feeding
  4. Check for tube placement and residual at least every 4 hours
  5. Increase the rate of the feeding if the infusion falls behind schedule - ✔✔✔ - 23. Answer: 3 Rationale: A complication of an NG tube is aspiration pneumonia caused by regurgitation of formula contents from the stomach into the respiratory tract. This risk can be minimized by checking tube placement and residual and by keeping the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees at all times. Nasogastric tubes may be left in place from weeks to months depending on the type of tube inserted. The feeding bag itself should be changed daily. Increasing the rate of the feeding can lead to complications and should not be done. • Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, safe administration of enteral feedings. Eliminate option 1 because a supine position could cause aspiration pneumonia. Eliminate option 2 next because nasogastric tubes may be left in place from weeks to months depending on the type of tube inserted. Choose option 3 over option 4 because it is definitive action that helps protect the client from aspiration. • Review: enteral feedings and nasogastric (NG) tube maintenance.
  6. The nurse is caring for a hospitalized child with a diagnosis of measles (rubeola). In preparing to care for the child, which supplies should the nurse bring to the child's room to prevent the transmission of the virus?
  7. Gown and gloves
  8. Goggles and gloves
  9. Mask, gown, and gloves
  10. Gown, gloves, and goggles - ✔✔✔ - 24. Answer: 3 Rationale: Rubeola is transmitted via airborne particles or direct contact with infectious droplets. Respiratory isolation is required, and a mask, gown, and gloves should be worn by those in contact with the child. Goggles are not specifically indicated for care of the child with rubeola. • Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, routes of transmission. Recalling that the route of transmission of rubeola is via airborne particles or direct contact with infectious droplets will direct you to the correct option. • Review: transmission methods of rubeola.
  11. A client is admitted to a medical unit with nausea and bradycardia. The family is upset and states, "That doctor doesn't know how to take care of my father." The most therapeutic response by the nurse is which statement?
  12. "You're right."
  13. "Don't worry about this. I'll take care of everything."
  1. "You are concerned that your loved one receives the best care."
  2. "I think you're wrong. That health care provider has been in practice more than 30 years." - ✔✔✔
    1. Answer: 3 Rationale: The correct option reflects the family's concern, but remains nonjudgmental. Options 1 and 2 create doubt about the health care provider's practice and ability without actually knowing the circumstances. Option 4 dismisses the family's concerns and disempowers the family and is argumentative and nontherapeutic. • Test-Taking Strategy: Use therapeutic communication techniques. Reflection of the client or family's concerns is the most therapeutic response. • Review: therapeutic communication techniques.
  1. The nurse is reviewing the plan of care for the client who has just undergone bilateral knee replacement. Which intervention, if noted in the plan of care, indicates the need for follow-up?
  2. Administer analgesics for pain.
  3. Monitor surgical sites for drainage and infection.
  4. Begin continuous passive range-of-motion exercises immediately.
  5. Avoid total weight-bearing and instruct in the use of assistive devices. - ✔✔✔ - 26. Answer: 3 Rationale: For the client who has undergone bilateral knee replacement, continuous passive range- of- motion exercises should begin 24 to 48 hours after surgery or as prescribed by the health care provider. Administration of analgesics for pain, monitoring surgical sites for drainage and infection, and avoiding total weight-bearing and instructing on the use of assistive devices are all appropriate interventions for this client. • Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words "need for follow-up." These words indicate a negative event query and the need to choose an option that is an incorrect intervention. • Review: knee replacement surgery.
  6. The nurse witnesses a construction worker fall from a ladder. The nurse rushes to the victim, who is unresponsive and uses which method to open the victim's airway?
  7. Head tilt/ chin lift
  8. Head tilt/ jaw thrust
  9. Jaw thrust maneuver
  10. Neutral or sniffing position - ✔✔✔ - 27. Answer: 3 Rationale: Whenever a neck injury is suspected, the jaw thrust maneuver should be used to open the airway. The head tilt/ chin lift produces hyperextension of the neck and could cause complications if a neck injury is present. The neutral or sniffing position may be used to open the airway in an infant. There is no such position as head tilt/ jaw thrust. • Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate option 4 first because this position is used in an infant. Eliminate options 1 and 2 next because they are comparable or alike, knowing that the head should not be tilted. • Review: basic life support.
  1. Sepsis that results from contaminated intravenous fluid
  2. A urinary tract infection that develops after catheter insertion
  3. A streptococci wound infection that develops in a postoperative client
  4. The development of Clostridium difficile in an immunocompromised client
  5. A respiratory tract infection that develops in a client receiving frequent respiratory treatments and requiring frequent suctioning - ✔✔✔ - 30. Answer: 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 Rationale: Nosocomial infections occur in a health care facility and result from the delivery of care. A hospital is a likely setting for acquiring an infection because it harbors a high population of virulent organisms that may be resistant to antibiotics. These infections may be exogenous or endogenous. An exogenous infection arises from microorganisms external to the client that does not exist as normal flora. An endogenous infection occurs when part of the client's flora becomes altered and an overgrowth results. Therefore, options 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 are examples of nosocomial infections. • Test- Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, nosocomial infections. Recalling that these types of infections occur in a health care facility and result from the delivery of care will direct you to the correct options.
  • Review: nosocomial infections.
  1. The nurse is analyzing laboratory values that were prescribed to determine nutrition status for the older adult client. Which laboratory value( s) would be of concern to the nurse? Select all that apply.
  2. Hematocrit 30%
  3. Albumin 3.0 g/ dL
  4. Calcium 10 mg/ dL
  5. Hemoglobin 8 g/ dL
  6. Creatinine 0.6 mg/ dL
  7. Blood urea nitrogen 20 mg/ dL - ✔✔✔ - 31. Answer: 1, 2, 4 Rationale: Expected laboratory values for the older adult may vary slightly when compared to that of the adult client. Laboratory values of concern to the nurse would be the hematocrit, albumin, and hemoglobin levels. For the older adult client, the normal hematocrit range is approximately 38 to 44%; normal albumin level is 3.5 to 5.0 g/ dL; and normal hemoglobin is 12 to 16 g/ dL. Options 3, 5, and 6 are within normal ranges. The normal calcium level ranges from approximately 9 to 11 mg/ dL; creatinine 0.5 to 1.0 mg/ dL; and blood urea nitrogen 10 to 20 mg/ dL. • Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, and note the words "would be of concern to the nurse" in the question. It is necessary to know the normal laboratory values for the older adult client in order to answer this question correctly. • Review: normal laboratory values for the older adult.
  8. The nursing instructor asks a nursing student to identify the type of isolation precautions necessary for the client with active tuberculosis (TB). The student understands the route of transmission if the student states that which type of isolation precaution should be maintained?
  9. Contact precautions
  1. Airborne precautions
  2. Standard precautions
  3. Handwashing precautions - ✔✔✔ - 32. Answer: 2 Rationale: TB is an infectious disease caused by the bacillus Mycobacterium tuberculosis and is spread primarily by the airborne route. Contact precautions are indicated when an infection is transmitted by direct contact with the client or contaminated items in the client's environment. Standard precautions are to be used with all clients to protect health care workers from contracting and transmitting communicable diseases. Proper handwashing by health care workers assists with prevention of transmission of infection. • Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, isolation precautions. Focus on the diagnosis. Recalling that TB is a respiratory disease will direct you to the correct option. • Review: transmission-based precautions.
  4. A postoperative client says to the nurse, "Don't touch me. I'll take care of myself!" Which response is therapeutic?
  5. "Fine! I won't touch you!"
  6. "Let's work together so you can do things for yourself."
  7. "I have to change your dressing so I have to touch you."
  8. "If that's what you want but I need to report this to the surgeon." - ✔✔✔ - 33. Answer: 2 Rationale: The therapeutic response is the one that reflects the client's feelings and empowers the client by offering some self-control over one's own care. Option 1 is an aggressive and nontherapeutic communication technique. Option 3 reflects assault by telling the client that he or she needs to be touched. In option 4, the nurse is demeaning. • Test-Taking Strategy: Use therapeutic communication techniques. Focus on the client's feelings to direct you to the correct option. • Review: therapeutic communication techniques.
  9. Ampicillin sodium 250 mg in 50 mL of NS is being administered over a period of 30 minutes. The drop factor is 10 drops per 1 mL. The nurse determines that the infusion is running safely at the prescribed rate if the infusion is delivering how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank. Round to the nearest whole number. Answer:_________________gtts/ min - ✔✔✔ - 34. Answer: 17 Rationale: Follow the formula for calculating IV infusion rates. Formula: Total volume in mL x Drop factor/Time in minutes= gtts per min 50mL x 10gtts/30 mins= 16.6 round to 17 gtts per min Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, an intravenous flow rate. Follow the intravenous flow rate formula. Use a calculator to verify the answer. Remember to round the answer to the nearest whole number. Review: intravenous flow rate calculations.
  1. 45 seconds
  2. 60 seconds - ✔✔✔ - 37. Answer: 2 Rationale: When auscultating the apical heart rate, the nurse should first determine whether the heart rate is regular. If it is regular, it is sufficient to auscultate for 30 seconds and then multiply by 2 to determine the number of beats per minute. If the heart rate is irregular or if the client is taking cardiac medications, the apical pulse should be measured for a full 60 seconds. Therefore, options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect. • Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a regular heart rate in a client not taking prescribed medications. Recall that a regular apical pulse rate can be measured for 30 seconds and multiplied by 2 to determine the number of beats per minute. • Review: cardiovascular physical assessment techniques.
  3. The health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of 0.9% NS to run over 8 hours. The drop factor is 15 drops per 1 mL. The nurse safely adjusts the flow rate to run at how many drops (gtts) per minute? Fill in the blank. Round to the nearest whole number. Answer: gtts/ min - ✔✔✔ - 38. Answer: 31 Rationale: Follow the formula for calculating IV infusion rates. Formula: Total volume in mL x Drop factor/Time in minutes= gtts per min 1000mL x 15gtts/480 min= 31.25 rounded to 31 gtts per min Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, an intravenous flow rate. Follow the formula. Be sure to convert 8 hours to minutes and calculate to the nearest whole number. Use a calculator to verify the answer. • Review: intravenous flow rate calculations.
  4. The nurse is caring for a client whose religious background is Seventh Day Adventist (Church of God). Which nursing action( s) are most appropriate in terms of providing for the dietary needs for this client? Select all that apply.
  5. Providing snacks between each meal.
  6. Providing wine with dinner as requested.
  7. Removing coffee from the breakfast tray.
  8. Ensuring that there is no pork on the dinner tray.
  9. Ensuring that meals are delivered in a timely fashion. - ✔✔✔ - 39. Answer: 3, 4, 5 Rationale: Clients whose religious background is Seventh Day Adventist (Church of God) have various dietary preferences, including avoidance of overeating. At least 5 to 6 hours must pass between meals, and in-between meal snacking is avoided. Coffee and alcohol are usually prohibited. Many members are lacto-ovovegetarian; those who do eat meat, however, will avoid pork. The nurse should ensure that meals are delivered in a timely fashion because of the hours that must pass between meals for the client.
  • Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words "most appropriate." Recalling that overeating is prohibited for clients of this religious background and coffee and alcohol is usually prohibited will assist you in eliminating the incorrect options. • Review: religions and dietary practices.
  1. The health care provider prescribes a bolus of 500 mL of 0.9% NS to run over 4 hours. The drop factor is 10 drops per 1 mL. The nurse plans to safely adjust the flow rate at how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank. Round to the nearest whole number. Answer: gtt/ min - ✔✔✔ -
  2. Answer: 21 Rationale: Follow the formula for calculating IV infusion rates. Formula: Total volume in mL x Drop factor/Time in minutes= gtts per min 500mL x 10gtts/240 min= 20.8 rounded to 21 gtts per min Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, an intravenous flow rate. Follow the formula. Be sure to convert 4 hours to minutes. Use a calculator to verify the answer. • Review: intravenous flow rate calculations.
  3. The nurse is caring for a client who is retaining carbon dioxide (CO2) due to respiratory disease. The nurse anticipates that as the client's CO2 level rises, the pH will most likely be which value?
  4. 7.88 - ✔✔✔ - 41. Answer: 1 Rationale: CO2 acts as an acid in the body. Therefore, with a rise in CO2, there is a corresponding fall in pH (" opposite effect"). A pH less than 7.35 indicates an acidic state, and a pH greater than 7.45 indicates an alkaline state. Options 2, 3, and 4 indicate an alkaline state and are therefore incorrect.
  • Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words "most likely." Focus on the subject, CO2. Recall that there is an inverse relationship between pH and the CO2 in the body. As CO2 rises, pH falls, and as CO falls, pH rises. • Review: acid-base principles.
  1. The nurse performing a home assessment on an older client would be concerned about which unsafe finding( s)? Select all that apply.
  2. Nonskid surfaces on slippers
  3. Nonskid backing on small rugs
  4. Electrical cords taped to the floor
  5. Bath mats on the shower stall floor
  6. Electrical appliances and cords near the sink - ✔✔✔ - 42. Answer: 3, 5 Rationale: Electrical cords need to be secured against baseboards, not to the floor. Electrical cords taped to the floor can result in tripping. Electrical appliances or cords should not be placed near the sink or any other water source because of the risk of electrocution. Options 1, 2, and 4 are safe measures to prevent falls. • Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, home assessment for the unsafe situations. Note the word "unsafe." Eliminate options 1 and 2 because of the word "nonskid."

Rationale: Follow the formula for calculating IV infusion rates. Formula: Total volume in mL x Drop factor/Time in minutes= gtts per min 500mL x 10gtts/360 min= 13.8 rounded to 14 gtts per min Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, an intravenous flow rate. Follow the formula. Be sure to convert 6 hours to minutes. Use a calculator to verify the answer. Review: intravenous flow rate calculations.

  1. The nurse is caring for a client whose religious background is Orthodox Judaism. The nurse is delivering the dinner tray to the client. Which nursing action( s) are most appropriate in order to provide for the dietary needs of this client? Select all that apply.
  2. Removing the milk if there is meat on the tray.
  3. Determining that any fish being served have scales or fins.
  4. Ensuring that if there is pork on the tray, it is thoroughly cooked.
  5. Checking to be sure that any meat being served is from an herbivore.
  6. Asking the client about any specific dietary preferences that need to be followed. - ✔✔✔ - 46. Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5 Rationale: Clients whose religious background is Orthodox Judaism have various dietary preferences, and typically must follow a Kosher diet. Milk and meat cannot be consumed together; therefore it is appropriate to remove milk from the tray if meat is being served. Fish with scales or fins are allowed. Clients are not allowed to eat pork; meats allowed include those who are herbivores, cloven-hoofed animals, and those that are ritually slaughtered. • Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words "most appropriate." Also note the client's religious background and think about their beliefs to assist in answering correctly. • Review: religions and dietary practices.
  7. The nurse notes that a 5-year-old child is choking but is awake and alert at this time. As the nurse rushes to aid the child, the nurse plans to place the hands between which landmarks to perform the abdominal thrust maneuver?
  8. The umbilicus and the groin
  9. The lower abdomen and chest
  10. The groin and the xiphoid process
  11. The umbilicus and xiphoid process - ✔✔✔ - 47. Answer: 4 Rationale: To perform the abdominal thrust maneuver, the rescuer stands behind the victim and places the arms directly under the victim's axillae and around the victim. The thumb side of one fist is placed against the victim's abdomen in the midline slightly above the umbilicus and well below the tip of the xiphoid process. The xiphoid process and ribs are avoided to prevent damage to internal organs. The fist is grasped with the other hand and upward thrusts are delivered. • Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, proper procedure for relief of choking. Visualize each of the

anatomical positions and think about the purpose of the abdominal thrust maneuver. This will direct you to the correct option. • Review: abdominal thrust maneuver.

  1. The nurse is analyzing the laboratory report for the client who had a specific gravity determination drawn. The report indicates a value of 1.030. The nurse understands that which condition may potentially be causing this result?
  2. Renal disease
  3. Diabetes insipidus
  4. Decreased renal perfusion
  5. Inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine - ✔✔✔ - 48. Answer: 3 Rationale: The normal urine specific gravity level is 1.016 to 1.022. An increase in urine specific gravity can occur as a result of decreased renal perfusion, increased antidiuretic hormone, or insufficient fluid intake. A decrease in urine specific gravity can occur as a result of increased fluid intake, diabetes insipidus, renal disease, or the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine. • Test- Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, conditions that affect urine specific gravity. Noting that the urine specific gravity level is elevated will assist in eliminating the incorrect options. • Review: normal laboratory values.
  6. The nurse is conducting a cardiovascular physical assessment on a client. The nurse is shown palpating which pulse? Refer to the figure.
  7. Carotid
  8. Brachial
  9. Popliteal
  10. Temporal - ✔✔✔ - 49. Answer: 1 Rationale: The nurse is palpating the carotid pulse, which is located in the lower third of the neck. The brachial pulse is located in the groove between the biceps and triceps tendon at the antecubital fossa. The popliteal pulse is located behind the knee in the popliteal fossa. The temporal pulse is located over the temporal bone on either side of the head. • Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, cardiovascular physical assessment. Use anatomy and physiology to answer this question. Recall that the carotid artery is located in the neck, directing you to the correct option. • Review: locations of pulses.
  11. The nurse should institute contact precautions for which disease?
  12. Measles
  13. Varicella
  14. Pulmonary tuberculosis
  15. Respiratory syncytial virus - ✔✔✔ - 50. Answer: 4