Download NURS 5432 FNP 2 |All Exams (This document covers the entirety of the class) University o and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
NURS 5432 FNP 2 |All Exams (This
document covers the entirety of the
class) University of Texas, Arlington
- Which diagnostic test is most appropriate to evaluate suspected congestive heart failure in an adult patient? a) Chest X-ray b) Electrocardiogram (ECG) c) Echocardiogram d) Pulmonary function test c) Echocardiogram An echocardiogram provides detailed images of the heart’s structure and function, making it the best test to evaluate congestive heart failure.
- A 45-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to the back. What is the most urgent diagnosis to rule out? a) Myocardial infarction b) Pulmonary embolism c) Aortic dissection d) Gastroesophageal reflux disease
c) Aortic dissection Aortic dissection is a life-threatening emergency that presents with sudden severe chest/back pain and must be ruled out immediately.
- Which medication class is first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients? a) Beta blockers b) ACE inhibitors c) Calcium channel blockers d) Diuretics b) ACE inhibitors ACE inhibitors reduce proteinuria and protect renal function, making them first- line for hypertension in diabetics.
- In a patient with COPD, which of the following findings on arterial blood gas is typical? a) Respiratory alkalosis b) Respiratory acidosis with hypoxemia c) Metabolic acidosis d) Metabolic alkalosis b) Respiratory acidosis with hypoxemia COPD patients often retain CO2 causing respiratory acidosis, along with low oxygen levels.
- A 30-year-old female presents with fatigue, cold intolerance, and weight gain. Which lab test best confirms hypothyroidism? a) T
- Which lab abnormality is typical in primary hyperparathyroidism? a) Hypocalcemia b) Hypercalcemia c) Hypophosphatemia d) Hyperkalemia b) Hypercalcemia Primary hyperparathyroidism causes increased parathyroid hormone secretion leading to elevated serum calcium.
- In a patient with type 2 diabetes, which HbA1c target is generally recommended? a) <6.0% b) <6.5% c) <7.0% d) <8.0% c) <7.0% The ADA recommends an HbA1c target of less than 7% for most nonpregnant adults with type 2 diabetes. 10.Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure? a) Peripheral edema b) Hepatomegaly c) Dyspnea on exertion d) Jugular venous distension
c) Dyspnea on exertion Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion leading to shortness of breath during exertion. 11.A 22-year-old female presents with dysuria and frequency. What is the most common causative organism of uncomplicated UTI? a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Escherichia coli c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Klebsiella pneumoniae b) Escherichia coli E. coli is responsible for about 80 - 90% of uncomplicated urinary tract infections. 12.What is the most appropriate initial screening test for iron deficiency anemia? a) Serum ferritin b) Serum iron c) Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) d) Hemoglobin electrophoresis a) Serum ferritin Serum ferritin is the best initial test for iron deficiency anemia as it reflects iron stores. 13.Which of the following is the best treatment for acute otitis media in children? a) Amoxicillin b) Ciprofloxacin
a) Urinary tract infection b) Bladder cancer c) Kidney stones d) Prostatitis b) Bladder cancer Painless hematuria in adults is a red flag symptom for bladder cancer and requires prompt evaluation. 17.Which medication is contraindicated in pregnancy due to risk of fetal neural tube defects? a) Furosemide b) Valproic acid c) Labetalol d) Insulin b) Valproic acid Valproic acid is teratogenic and associated with neural tube defects in pregnancy. 18.For a patient diagnosed with chronic kidney disease, what is the best initial step to slow disease progression? a) High-protein diet b) Control of hypertension c) Smoking cessation only d) Increase sodium intake b) Control of hypertension Blood pressure control, especially with ACE inhibitors or ARBs, slows CKD progression.
19.What is the recommended screening test for colorectal cancer in average- risk adults? a) Colonoscopy every 10 years b) Fecal occult blood test every 5 years c) CT scan every 3 years d) Flexible sigmoidoscopy every 15 years a) Colonoscopy every 10 years Colonoscopy every 10 years is the gold standard for colorectal cancer screening in average-risk adults. 20.Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness? a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D a) Vitamin A Vitamin A deficiency leads to impaired vision adaptation in darkness, causing night blindness. 21.A 65-year-old smoker has a persistent cough and weight loss. What is the best next diagnostic step? a) Chest X-ray b) Sputum culture c) CT scan of the chest d) Pulmonary function tests
c) Decongestants d) Leukotriene receptor antagonists b) Nasal corticosteroids Nasal corticosteroids are the most effective first-line treatment for allergic rhinitis. 25.A 40-year-old patient has newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes. Which medication is recommended first-line? a) Metformin b) Sulfonylureas c) Insulin d) DPP-4 inhibitors a) Metformin Metformin is first-line for type 2 diabetes due to efficacy, safety, and cardiovascular benefits. 26.Which symptom is most indicative of a stroke? a) Gradual onset of headache b) Sudden unilateral weakness c) Progressive memory loss d) Chronic dizziness b) Sudden unilateral weakness Sudden onset of unilateral weakness or numbness is a hallmark of stroke requiring emergency evaluation. 27.What is the primary cause of osteoarthritis? a) Autoimmune inflammation b) Degeneration of cartilage
c) Infection d) Metabolic bone disease b) Degeneration of cartilage Osteoarthritis is caused by progressive degeneration of joint cartilage leading to pain and stiffness. 28.Which antibiotic class is contraindicated in pregnancy? a) Penicillins b) Tetracyclines c) Cephalosporins d) Macrolides b) Tetracyclines Tetracyclines can cause fetal teeth discoloration and bone growth inhibition and are contraindicated in pregnancy. 29.Which is the preferred treatment for mild persistent asthma? a) Short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) as needed b) Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids c) Oral corticosteroids d) Leukotriene modifiers b) Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids Inhaled corticosteroids are the cornerstone for controlling mild persistent asthma. 30.In a patient with newly diagnosed hypertension, which lifestyle modification has the greatest impact? a) Smoking cessation b) Weight loss
c) Pulmonary embolism d) Aortic dissection a) Stroke Atrial fibrillation increases risk of embolic stroke due to blood stasis and clot formation. 34.What is the treatment of choice for latent tuberculosis infection? a) Isoniazid for 9 months b) Rifampin for 2 months c) Pyrazinamide for 6 months d) Ethambutol for 9 months a) Isoniazid for 9 months Isoniazid daily for 9 months is standard treatment for latent TB to prevent active disease. 35.Which hormone is primarily responsible for glucose uptake into muscle and fat cells? a) Glucagon b) Insulin c) Cortisol d) Epinephrine b) Insulin Insulin promotes cellular uptake of glucose, lowering blood glucose levels. 36.What is the most common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? a) Dysphagia
b) Heartburn c) Nausea d) Vomiting b) Heartburn Heartburn is the classic symptom of GERD caused by acid reflux. 37.A 25-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea for 6 months and galactorrhea. What is the most likely diagnosis? a) Pregnancy b) Prolactinoma c) Hypothyroidism d) Polycystic ovarian syndrome b) Prolactinoma Prolactin-secreting pituitary tumors cause galactorrhea and amenorrhea. 38.Which medication class is used to reduce LDL cholesterol? a) Beta blockers b) Statins c) Calcium channel blockers d) Diuretics b) Statins Statins inhibit HMG-CoA reductase to reduce LDL cholesterol levels. 39.Which of the following is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis? a) Hyperglycemia, ketonuria, metabolic acidosis b) Hypoglycemia, ketonuria, metabolic alkalosis
a) Diabetes mellitus b) Impaired fasting glucose (prediabetes) c) Impaired glucose tolerance d) Gestational diabetes b) Impaired fasting glucose (prediabetes) Impaired fasting glucose is a form of prediabetes with elevated fasting glucose but normal post-load glucose. 43.Which drug is most appropriate for the treatment of acute gout attack? a) Allopurinol b) Colchicine c) Probenecid d) Methotrexate b) Colchicine Colchicine reduces inflammation rapidly during an acute gout attack. 44.Which cardiac arrhythmia is characterized by sawtooth atrial waves on ECG? a) Atrial fibrillation b) Atrial flutter c) Ventricular tachycardia d) Supraventricular tachycardia b) Atrial flutter Atrial flutter shows characteristic sawtooth atrial waves on ECG. 45.Which clinical feature is most consistent with chronic venous insufficiency? a) Cool, pale legs
b) Edema and skin hyperpigmentation c) Sharp, stabbing leg pain d) Absent peripheral pulses b) Edema and skin hyperpigmentation Chronic venous insufficiency causes lower leg edema and hemosiderin staining leading to hyperpigmentation. 46.In the management of acute asthma exacerbation, which medication is first-line? a) Inhaled corticosteroids b) Short-acting beta-agonists (SABA) c) Long-acting beta-agonists (LABA) d) Leukotriene receptor antagonists b) Short-acting beta-agonists (SABA) SABAs provide rapid bronchodilation and are first-line in acute asthma exacerbations. 47.A patient has a BMI of 32. What category does this BMI fall into? a) Normal weight b) Overweight c) Obese class I d) Obese class II c) Obese class I BMI 30-34.9 is classified as Obese Class I. 48.Which of the following is the most common cause of hypothyroidism worldwide?
51.A 60-year-old male with chronic atrial fibrillation requires anticoagulation. Which medication has the lowest need for routine monitoring? a) Warfarin b) Dabigatran c) Heparin d) Enoxaparin b) Dabigatran Dabigatran is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that does not require routine INR monitoring unlike warfarin. 52.Which clinical sign is characteristic of diabetic neuropathy? a) Muscle hypertrophy b) Loss of vibration and position sense c) Hyperreflexia d) Increased pain sensitivity b) Loss of vibration and position sense Diabetic neuropathy often affects large sensory fibers causing decreased vibration and proprioception. 53.A 35-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis is concerned about her prognosis. Which is true about the disease course? a) It is always rapidly progressive b) It typically follows a relapsing-remitting course c) It is curable with immunosuppressants d) It primarily affects peripheral nerves
b) It typically follows a relapsing-remitting course Most patients with MS have a relapsing-remitting pattern initially, with exacerbations and remissions. 54.What is the first-line therapy for symptomatic benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? a) Alpha-1 blockers b) 5-alpha reductase inhibitors c) Antibiotics d) Diuretics a) Alpha-1 blockers Alpha-1 blockers relax smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck to improve urinary symptoms. 55.In the evaluation of a thyroid nodule, which feature on ultrasound is most concerning for malignancy? a) Hyperechoic nodule b) Microcalcifications c) Smooth margins d) Cystic composition b) Microcalcifications Microcalcifications on thyroid ultrasound suggest malignancy and warrant further evaluation. 56.Which of the following is the recommended treatment for latent syphilis? a) Doxycycline for 14 days b) Penicillin G benzathine single dose
