Intravenous Therapy: Principles, Benefits, and Risks, Exams of Nursing

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NUR 1 72

Intravenous Therapy

Review Exam

Q & A

1. Question: What is the primary physiological principle underlying intravenous fluid therapy in patients with hypovolemia? Answer: The primary principle is to restore circulating blood volume, thereby improving tissue perfusion and oxygenation. Rationale: Hypovolemia refers to decreased blood volume, which can lead to reduced tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Intravenous therapy quickly replenishes blood volume, ensuring vital organs receive adequate oxygen.
2. Question: How does the osmolarity of IV solutions affect fluid distribution in the body? Answer: Isotonic solutions maintain fluid balance, hypotonic solutions cause fluid shift into cells, and hypertonic solutions draw fluid out of cells. Rationale: Osmolarity determines the movement of water across cell membranes. Isotonic solutions have no net movement, hypotonic solutions hydrate cells, and hypertonic solutions are used to reduce cellular swelling or deliver concentrated nutrients.
3. Question: In administering IV potassium, what is the maximum recommended infusion rate to prevent cardiac complications? Answer: The maximum rate should not exceed 10 mEq/hour. Rationale: Rapid infusion of potassium can lead to hyperkalemia, which may cause cardiac arrhythmias or arrest. A controlled rate ensures safe serum potassium levels.
4. Question: What is the significance of monitoring blood pressure during intravenous therapy? Answer: It helps detect either hypervolemia or hypovolemia, indicating whether the IV therapy is too fast or insufficient. Rationale: Blood pressure reflects fluid status; a significant increase may suggest fluid overload, while a decrease might indicate inadequate volume replacement.
5. Question: Why is it important to use aseptic technique when preparing and administering IV medications? Answer: To prevent infections, including potentially life- threatening bloodstream infections.

10. Question: When administering blood products intravenously, what are key nursing considerations to ensure patient safety? Answer: Key considerations include verifying patient identity, blood type compatibility, monitoring for transfusion reactions, and following protocol for rate of administration. Rationale: These measures prevent adverse reactions and ensure that patients receive safe and appropriate blood transfusions.
11. Which of the following statements accurately describes the theoretical basis for intravenous therapy? A. Intravenous therapy is based on the principle of delivering medications and fluids directly into the bloodstream. B. Intravenous therapy is only used in emergency situations to rapidly deliver medications. C. Intravenous therapy is not effective for patients with chronic illnesses. D. Intravenous therapy is contraindicated in pediatric patients. Answer: A. Intravenous therapy is based on the principle of delivering medications and fluids directly into the bloodstream. Rationale: Intravenous therapy involves administering medications and fluids directly into the bloodstream, allowing for rapid absorption and distribution throughout the body.
12. The primary benefit of intravenous therapy is: A. Slow absorption of medications B. Rapid distribution of medications C. Decreased risk of infection D. Limited use in emergency situations Answer: B. Rapid distribution of medications Rationale: Intravenous therapy allows for medications to be rapidly distributed throughout the body, providing quick relief for patients in need.
13. Which of the following is considered a contraindication for intravenous

therapy? A. Dehydration B. Infection at the insertion site C. Need for rapid medication administration D. Non-availability of oral route Answer: B. Infection at the insertion site Rationale: Infection at the insertion site is a contraindication for intravenous therapy, as it can lead to further complications and potential harm to the patient.

4. The theoretical basis for using intravenous therapy in patients with dehydration is: A. Slow absorption of fluids B. Rapid restoration of hydration status C. Limited availability of oral fluids D. Decreased risk of electrolyte imbalances Answer: B. Rapid restoration of hydration status Rationale: Intravenous therapy allows for rapid administration of fluids, making it an effective treatment option for quickly rehydrating patients with dehydration.
5. Which of the following is a potential complication of intravenous therapy? A. Rapid medication administration B. Infection at the insertion site C. Decreased risk of fluid overload D. Minimal monitoring required Answer: B. Infection at the insertion site Rationale: Infection at the insertion site is a potential complication of intravenous therapy, highlighting the importance of proper technique and monitoring.
6. The theoretical basis for using intravenous therapy in patients with malnutrition is: A. Slow absorption of nutrients

D. Decreased risk of electrolyte imbalances Answer: B. Rapid removal of excess fluids Rationale: Intravenous therapy can be used to rapidly remove excess fluids from the body, making it a valuable treatment option for patients with fluid overload.

10. Which of the following factors should be considered when determining the appropriate intravenous therapy for a patient? A. Patient's weight B. Patient's height C. Patient's age D. All of the above Answer: D. All of the above Rationale: The patient's weight, height, and age are all important factors to consider when determining the appropriate intravenous therapy to ensure safe and effective treatment.
11. The theoretical basis for using intravenous therapy in patients with severe pain is: A. Slow absorption of pain medications B. Rapid administration of pain relief C. Limited oral intake D. Decreased risk of adverse effects Answer: B. Rapid administration of pain relief Rationale: Intravenous therapy allows for rapid administration of pain relief medications, providing quick relief for patients in severe pain.
12. The theoretical basis for using intravenous therapy in patients with chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting is: A. Slow absorption of antiemetic medications B. Rapid administration of antiemetics C. Limited oral intake D. Decreased risk of adverse effects Answer: B. Rapid administration of antiemetics

Rationale: Intravenous therapy allows for rapid administration of antiemetics, making it a valuable treatment option for patients experiencing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

13. The theoretical basis for using intravenous therapy in patients with shock is: A. Slow restoration of blood pressure B. Rapid administration of fluids C. Limited oral intake D. Decreased risk of electrolyte imbalances Answer: B. Rapid administration of fluids Rationale: Intravenous therapy allows for rapid administration of fluids to help restore blood pressure and improve perfusion in patients with shock.
14. Which of the following is a potential benefit of using a central venous catheter for intravenous therapy? A. Decreased risk of infection B. Limited monitoring required C. Rapid administration of medications D. Minimal risk of complications Answer: C. Rapid administration of medications Rationale: Central venous catheters allow for rapid administration of medications, making them a valuable option for patients requiring frequent or continuous intravenous therapy.
15. The theoretical basis for using intravenous therapy in patients with anemia is: A. Slow absorption of iron supplements B. Rapid administration of iron C. Limited oral intake D. Decreased risk of adverse effects Answer: B. Rapid administration of iron Rationale: Intravenous therapy allows for rapid administration of iron supplements, making it an effective treatment option for patients with anemia in need of quick treatment.

hyperkalemia is: A. Slow removal of potassium B. Rapid elimination of excess potassium C. Limited oral intake D. Decreased risk of adverse effects Answer: B. Rapid elimination of excess potassium Rationale: Intravenous therapy allows for rapid elimination of excess potassium, making it an effective treatment option for patients with hyperkalemia in need of urgent intervention.

20. Which of the following statements accurately describes the importance of proper documentation in intravenous therapy? A. Documentation is not necessary for intravenous therapy B. Documentation helps ensure accurate medication administration C. Documentation is only required for central venous catheters D. Documentation is the responsibility of the physician Answer: B. Documentation helps ensure accurate medication administration Rationale: Proper documentation in intravenous therapy is essential for ensuring accurate medication administration, monitoring patient progress, and maintaining patient safety.
21. The theoretical basis for using intravenous therapy in patients with hyponatremia is: A. Slow administration of sodium B. Rapid correction of sodium levels C. Limited oral intake D. Decreased risk of adverse effects Answer: B. Rapid correction of sodium levels Rationale: Intravenous therapy allows for rapid correction of sodium levels in patients with hyponatremia, making it an effective treatment option for quickly restoring electrolyte balance.
22. The theoretical basis for using intravenous therapy in patients with acute renal failure is:

A. Slow removal of waste products B. Rapid clearance of waste products C. Limited oral intake D. Decreased risk of electrolyte imbalances Answer: B. Rapid clearance of waste products Rationale: Intravenous therapy allows for rapid clearance of waste products in patients with acute renal failure, helping to improve kidney function and overall patient outcomes.

23. Which of the following is a potential complication of using a peripheral intravenous catheter for intravenous therapy? A. Rapid administration of medications B. Limited risk of infiltration C. Increased risk of phlebitis D. Minimal monitoring required Answer: C. Increased risk of phlebitis Rationale: Using a peripheral intravenous catheter for intravenous therapy can increase the risk of phlebitis, highlighting the importance of proper insertion technique and monitoring.
24. The theoretical basis for using intravenous therapy in patients with severe dehydration is: A. Slow restoration of hydration status B. Rapid rehydration C. Limited oral intake D. Decreased risk of electrolyte imbalances Answer: B. Rapid rehydration Rationale: Intravenous therapy allows for rapid rehydration in patients with severe dehydration, making it a valuable treatment option for quickly restoring fluid balance.
25. Which of the following factors should be considered when selecting the appropriate intravenous access device for a patient? A. Patient's age B. Patient's weight

B: Viscosity of the IV fluid C: Diameter of the IV catheter D: All of the above Answer: D. All of the above Rationale: The flow rate of an IV infusion can be affected by various factors, including the position of the patient's arm, the viscosity of the IV fluid, and the diameter of the IV catheter. Question: A patient is receiving IV heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor closely to assess the effectiveness and safety of the heparin therapy? A: Prothrombin time (PT) B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) C: International normalized ratio (INR) D: Platelet count Answer: B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) Rationale: The aPTT is used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy by assessing the clotting time. Question: A patient is prescribed IV vancomycin. The nurse should be aware that this medication has the potential to cause which of the following adverse effects? A: Ototoxicity B: Nephrotoxicity C: Hypertension D: Bradycardia Answer: B. Nephrotoxicity Rationale: Vancomycin has the potential to cause nephrotoxicity, especially when administered via the IV route. Question: Which of the following statements accurately describes the use of a central venous catheter for IV therapy? A: Central venous catheters are primarily used for short-term IV therapy. B: Central venous catheters are associated with a lower risk of infection compared to peripheral IV catheters. C: Central venous catheters can be used to administer hypertonic solutions and vesicant medications.

D: Central venous catheters are inserted into peripheral veins. Answer: C. Central venous catheters can be used to administer hypertonic solutions and vesicant medications. Rationale: Central venous catheters are suitable for administering hypertonic solutions and vesicant medications due to their larger diameter and direct access to the central circulation. Question: When administering IV fluids, the nurse should be aware that isotonic solutions: A: Expand the intravascular compartment B: Shift fluid into the cells C: Cause cellular dehydration D: Should be administered rapidly to prevent hypovolemia Answer: A. Expand the intravascular compartment Rationale: Isotonic solutions have a similar osmolarity to blood and expand the intravascular compartment without causing significant shifts of fluid into or out of the cells. Question: A patient with severe dehydration requires rapid IV rehydration. Which type of IV solution is most appropriate for this situation? A: 0.45% sodium chloride (1/2 NS) B: 5% dextrose in water (D5W) C: 0.9% sodium chloride (NS) D: Lactated Ringer's solution Answer: D. Lactated Ringer's solution Rationale: Lactated Ringer's solution is a balanced crystalloid solution that is suitable for rapid IV rehydration due to its composition, which closely resembles the electrolyte content of plasma. Question: The nurse is preparing to administer IV potassium chloride to a patient. Which of the following actions is essential before administering the medication? A: Diluting the medication in a larger volume of IV fluid B: Administering the medication as a rapid IV push C: Checking the patient's urine output D: Assessing the patient's serum potassium level Answer: D. Assessing the patient's serum potassium level Rationale: Assessing the patient's serum potassium level is essential

the primary IV line? A: Distal port B: Proximal port C: Y-site D: Injection port Answer: C. Y-site Rationale: Connecting the secondary IV tubing to the Y-site of the primary IV line allows for the administration of piggyback medications without interrupting the primary infusion. Question: A patient is prescribed IV furosemide. The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following potential adverse effects of this medication? A: Hypokalemia B: Hyperkalemia C: Hypocalcemia D: Hyponatremia Answer: A. Hypokalemia Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to the loss of potassium, potentially causing hypokalemia. Question: A patient is receiving IV chemotherapy. Which of the following actions is essential for the nurse to take to ensure safe administration of the chemotherapy medication? A: Wear double gloves during medication administration B: Flush the IV line before and after the administration of the chemotherapy C: Administer the chemotherapy as a rapid IV push D: Store the chemotherapy medication in the patient's room Answer: B. Flush the IV line before and after the administration of the chemotherapy Rationale: Flushing the IV line before and after the administration of chemotherapy helps prevent contamination and ensures safe administration. Question: A patient is prescribed IV magnesium sulfate. The nurse should closely monitor the patient for which of the following potential adverse effects of this medication?

A: Hypotension B: Hypocalcemia C: Respiratory depression D: Hypothermia Answer: C. Respiratory depression Rationale: Magnesium sulfate has the potential to cause respiratory depression, especially when administered in high doses and at a rapid rate. Question: A patient is receiving IV fluid therapy, and the nurse notices crackles in the patient's lungs, increased heart rate, and shortness of breath. These signs are indicative of which of the following IV therapy complications? A: Fluid overload B: Air embolism C: Septicemia D: Infiltration Answer: A. Fluid overload Rationale: Crackles in the lungs, increased heart rate, and shortness of breath are indicative of fluid overload, a potential complication of IV fluid therapy. Question: Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent air embolism during IV therapy? A: Prime the IV tubing with medication before connecting it to the IV catheter B: Ensure that the IV bag is positioned below the level of the patient's heart C: Clamp the IV tubing when changing the IV bag D: Use a filter needle to withdraw medication from an ampule Answer: B. Ensure that the IV bag is positioned below the level of the patient's heart Rationale: Keeping the IV bag below the level of the patient's heart helps prevent the entry of air into the circulation and reduces the risk of air embolism. Question: A patient is receiving IV heparin therapy. The nurse should monitor the patient's aPTT levels and adjust the heparin infusion rate based on which of the following parameters?

D: Hepatotoxicity Answer: C. Anaphylaxis Rationale: Ampicillin has the potential to cause anaphylaxis, especially in patients with a history of penicillin allergy. Question: A patient is receiving IV potassium chloride, and the nurse notes peaked T-waves on the electrocardiogram (ECG). These ECG changes are indicative of which of the following electrolyte imbalances? A: Hyperkalemia B: Hypokalemia C: Hyponatremia D: Hypernatremia Answer: A. Hyperkalemia Rationale: Peaked T-waves on the ECG are indicative of hyperkalemia, which can occur as a result of IV potassium chloride administration. Question: A patient is receiving IV fluid therapy, and the nurse notices redness, swelling, and warmth along the vein. These signs are indicative of which of the following IV therapy complications? A: Infiltration B: Phlebitis C: Thrombosis D: Hematoma Answer: B. Phlebitis Rationale: Redness, swelling, and warmth along the vein are indicative of phlebitis, a common complication of IV therapy. Question: A patient is prescribed IV propofol for sedation during a procedure. The nurse should be aware that this medication has the potential to cause which of the following adverse effects? A: Hypertension B: Tachycardia C: Respiratory depression D: Hyperglycemia Answer: C. Respiratory depression Rationale: Propofol has the potential to cause respiratory depression, especially when administered for sedation via the IV route.