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Advanced Pharmacology Exam Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

Waldorf UniversityNursing

A multiple-choice Q&A set for advanced pharmacology, covering drug classes, mechanisms, uses, and adverse effects. Rationales are included for correct answers to enhance understanding. Questions address key concepts like ACE inhibitors, statins, antibiotics, and antidepressants, making it valuable for students and professionals. It covers contraindications during pregnancy, black box warnings, and lab monitoring, providing a review of pharmacology principles. Useful for exam prep and reinforcing knowledge, it focuses on clinical applications and patient safety, testing understanding of drug mechanisms, uses, and effects.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/16/2025

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NRNP 5110: Advanced Pharmacology (Final Exam 1)
2025 Questions and Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) with Rationales
1. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of ACE
inhibitors?
A. Increase heart rate by stimulating beta receptors
B. Block calcium channels in the vascular smooth muscle
C. Inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
D. Stimulate aldosterone secretion
ACE inhibitors reduce blood pressure by inhibiting the angiotensin-
converting enzyme, decreasing angiotensin II production and thus
vasoconstriction.
2. What is a common adverse effect of statins?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Myopathy
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Tachycardia
Statins may cause muscle pain or weakness due to effects on muscle
metabolism.
3. Which drug is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenic effects?
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Download Advanced Pharmacology Exam Questions and Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NRNP 5110: Advanced Pharmacology (Final Exam 1 )

2025 Questions and Correct Answers (Verified

Answers) with Rationales

  1. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors? A. Increase heart rate by stimulating beta receptors B. Block calcium channels in the vascular smooth muscle C. Inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II D. Stimulate aldosterone secretion

ACE inhibitors reduce blood pressure by inhibiting the angiotensin-

converting enzyme, decreasing angiotensin II production and thus

vasoconstriction.

  1. What is a common adverse effect of statins? A. Hyperkalemia B. Myopathy C. Hypoglycemia D. Tachycardia

Statins may cause muscle pain or weakness due to effects on muscle

metabolism.

  1. Which drug is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenic effects?

A. Isotretinoin B. Acetaminophen C. Penicillin D. Docusate sodium

Isotretinoin is a known teratogen and requires strict pregnancy

prevention protocols.

  1. Which class of antibiotics is associated with tendon rupture? A. Macrolides B. Penicillins C. Fluoroquinolones D. Cephalosporins

Fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin carry a black box warning for tendon

rupture.

  1. What is the therapeutic use of levothyroxine? A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Addison’s disease

Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of T4 used to treat hypothyroidism.

  1. What is the black box warning for SSRIs in adolescents? A. Renal failure B. Increased risk of suicidal thoughts

Amiodarone can cause both hypo- and hyperthyroidism.

  1. What is the primary effect of beta-1 blockers? A. Bronchodilation B. Decreased heart rate and contractility C. Increased renin release D. Increased cardiac output

Beta-1 blockers reduce heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand.

  1. Which medication is used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes but not type 1? A. Metformin B. Insulin glargine C. Regular insulin D. NPH insulin

Metformin is only effective in patients with residual insulin production.

  1. Which antibiotic class is most associated with QT prolongation? A. Penicillins B. Macrolides C. Tetracyclines D. Sulfonamides

Macrolides like azithromycin may prolong the QT interval and cause

arrhythmias.

  1. What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?

A. Atropine B. N-acetylcysteine C. Vitamin K D. Flumazenil

N-acetylcysteine restores glutathione levels and prevents liver damage.

  1. What is a serious side effect of clozapine? A. Tachycardia B. Hepatotoxicity C. Agranulocytosis D. Hypertension

Clozapine can cause a dangerous drop in white blood cell count.

  1. What is the primary mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers? A. Inhibit calcium influx into vascular smooth muscle and myocardium B. Increase potassium levels C. Stimulate beta-2 receptors D. Activate sodium channels

They cause vasodilation and reduce cardiac workload by inhibiting

calcium entry.

  1. Which antihypertensive is preferred in pregnancy? A. ACE inhibitors B. ARBs
  1. Which medication is most appropriate for acute asthma exacerbation? A. Salmeterol B. Albuterol C. Montelukast D. Tiotropium

Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist used for immediate relief.

  1. Which lab value should be monitored during lithium therapy? A. AST B. Serum creatinine C. Hemoglobin D. Glucose

Lithium can impair renal function, so creatinine levels must be monitored.

22.Which class of drugs is used first-line for generalized anxiety disorder? A. SSRIs B. Antipsychotics C. MAOIs D. Beta-blockers

SSRIs are considered first-line therapy due to their efficacy and

tolerability.

  1. What is the mechanism of action of digoxin?

A. Inhibits renin B. Inhibits Na+/K+ ATPase pump C. Activates beta-adrenergic receptors D. Blocks calcium channels

Inhibition increases intracellular calcium, strengthening cardiac

contractions.

  1. What is a common adverse effect of loop diuretics? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypercalcemia D. Bradycardia

Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, risking hypokalemia.

25.Which insulin has the most rapid onset? A. Insulin lispro B. Insulin glargine C. NPH insulin D. Regular insulin

Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of about 15 minutes.

  1. Which medication is indicated for the treatment of generalized tonic-clonic seizures?

A. Flumazenil B. Naloxone C. N-acetylcysteine D. Atropine

Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that reverses

sedation and respiratory depression.

  1. Which of the following drugs can cause a persistent dry cough? A. ARBs B. ACE inhibitors C. Beta-blockers D. Loop diuretics

ACE inhibitors can increase bradykinin levels, causing a dry cough in some

patients.

  1. What is the mechanism of action of sulfonylureas? A. Stimulate insulin release from pancreatic beta cells B. Decrease insulin resistance C. Inhibit glucose absorption D. Block glucagon secretion

Sulfonylureas stimulate the pancreas to secrete more insulin.

  1. Which medication is contraindicated in patients with sulfa allergy? A. Amoxicillin B. Azithromycin

C. Furosemide D. Ciprofloxacin

Furosemide is a sulfonamide derivative and may cross-react in sulfa-

allergic patients.

  1. What is the most common side effect of nitroglycerin? A. Headache B. Nausea C. Dry mouth D. Constipation

Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation, which often leads to headaches due to

increased intracranial pressure.

  1. What should be monitored when a patient is taking spironolactone? A. Sodium levels B. Blood glucose C. Potassium levels D. Calcium levels

Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and can lead to

hyperkalemia.

  1. What is the mechanism of action of levodopa in Parkinson’s disease? A. Precursor to dopamine that crosses the blood-brain barrier B. Inhibits dopamine metabolism

Metformin can rarely cause lactic acidosis, especially in renal impairment.

  1. What is the mechanism of action of naloxone? A. Competitive opioid receptor antagonist B. Dopamine agonist C. GABA inhibitor D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor

Naloxone rapidly displaces opioids from receptors, reversing effects.

  1. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause gingival hyperplasia? A. Lamotrigine B. Carbamazepine C. Phenytoin D. Diazepam

Phenytoin is associated with gum overgrowth in long-term use.

  1. Which antidepressant is also used to aid smoking cessation? A. Sertraline B. Bupropion C. Fluoxetine D. Mirtazapine

Bupropion inhibits dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake and reduces

nicotine cravings.

  1. What lab should be monitored during methotrexate therapy?

A. Glucose B. Liver enzymes C. Lipase D. Troponin

Methotrexate can be hepatotoxic, so LFTs are routinely monitored.

  1. What is a major side effect of second-generation antipsychotics like olanzapine? A. Seizures B. Hyperthyroidism C. Metabolic syndrome D. Alopecia

Second-generation antipsychotics can cause weight gain, dyslipidemia,

and insulin resistance.

  1. Which drug requires REMS (Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy) due to teratogenicity? A. Isotretinoin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Loratadine D. Omeprazole

Isotretinoin carries high teratogenic risk and requires strict monitoring.

45.What is the preferred treatment for Clostridioides difficile infection?

C. Stimulates osteoblasts D. Blocks calcium absorption

Alendronate is a bisphosphonate that inhibits bone resorption to treat

osteoporosis.

  1. Which medication is a selective beta-1 blocker? A. Propranolol B. Labetalol C. Metoprolol D. Carvedilol

Metoprolol selectively blocks beta-1 receptors, primarily affecting the

heart.

50.Which of the following drugs can cause Stevens-Johnson Syndrome? A. Acetaminophen B. Metformin C. Lamotrigine D. Atorvastatin

Lamotrigine carries a risk of life-threatening skin reactions, including SJS.