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Obstetrics Practice Exam 2025: Review Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

Maryville CollegeNursing

A practice exam for obstetrics in 2025, featuring expert-rated questions with answers and detailed rationales. It covers various topics related to prenatal care, labor and delivery, postpartum care, and newborn care. The questions assess knowledge of nursing interventions, vital sign interpretation, and client education, making it a valuable resource for exam preparation and reinforcing key concepts in obstetric nursing. It is designed to help students achieve success by providing comprehensive review and practice.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 05/30/2025

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HESI OB Practice Exam 2025: With over 70
Comprehensive Review with Expert-Rated Questions,
Correct Answers, and Detailed Rationales for Top
Exam Success
Question: An infant in respiratory distress is on pulse oximetry with O₂ sat of 85%. What is
the priority nursing intervention?
A. Evaluate the blood pH
B. Begin humidified oxygen via hood ✅
C. Place under a radiant warmer
D. Stimulate crying
Correct Answer: B. Begin humidified oxygen via hood
Rationale: An O₂ saturation of 85% is below the acceptable range for newborns.
Immediate oxygen support is needed to improve oxygenation and prevent hypoxic injury.
Question: When assessing a newborn’s heart rate, which technique is most important?
A. Count the heart rate for at least one full minute ✅
B. Quiet the infant first
C. Palpate the umbilical cord
D. Listen at the apex
Correct Answer: A. Count the heart rate for at least one full minute
Rationale: A full minute count is necessary due to the variability in newborn heart rates,
especially right after birth.
Question: A mother refuses a vitamin K injection for her newborn. What is the best nursing
response?
A. It was prescribed by the provider
B. Explore the mother’s concerns ✅
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Download Obstetrics Practice Exam 2025: Review Questions and Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

HESI OB Practice Exam 2025: With over 70

Comprehensive Review with Expert-Rated Questions,

Correct Answers, and Detailed Rationales for Top

Exam Success

Question: An infant in respiratory distress is on pulse oximetry with O₂ sat of 85%. What is the priority nursing intervention? A. Evaluate the blood pH B. Begin humidified oxygen via hood ✅ C. Place under a radiant warmer D. Stimulate crying Correct Answer: B. Begin humidified oxygen via hood Rationale: An O₂ saturation of 85% is below the acceptable range for newborns. Immediate oxygen support is needed to improve oxygenation and prevent hypoxic injury. Question: When assessing a newborn’s heart rate, which technique is most important? A. Count the heart rate for at least one full minute ✅ B. Quiet the infant first C. Palpate the umbilical cord D. Listen at the apex Correct Answer: A. Count the heart rate for at least one full minute Rationale: A full minute count is necessary due to the variability in newborn heart rates, especially right after birth. Question: A mother refuses a vitamin K injection for her newborn. What is the best nursing response? A. It was prescribed by the provider B. Explore the mother’s concerns ✅

C. Remind her it's painless D. Say it’s mandatory by law Correct Answer: B. Explore the mother’s concerns Rationale: A therapeutic, client-centered approach involves understanding the mother's reasoning and providing evidence-based education to address fears. Question: Which instruction is most important when teaching a breastfeeding mother about diet? A. Double prenatal milk intake B. Increase calories by 500/day C. Avoid spicy foods D. Avoid alcohol Correct Answer: D. Avoid alcohol Rationale: Alcohol passes into breast milk and can affect the infant's development. Avoiding it entirely is the safest recommendation. Question: At 10 weeks gestation, a high-risk multiparous client with a family history of Down syndrome is admitted for observation following a chorionic villus sampling (CVS) procedure. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention? A. Uterine cramping ✅ B. Intermittent nausea C. Systolic blood pressure < 100 mmHg D. Abdominal tenderness Correct Answer: A. Uterine cramping Rationale: Uterine cramping after CVS may indicate the beginning of a miscarriage or uterine irritation and requires immediate intervention. Nausea and mild abdominal tenderness can be common, but cramping is more concerning at this gestational stage.

Question: A client asks about congenital heart defect (CHD) risks. What response best explains when CHDs may occur? A. They occur in the first trimester B. The heart develops in weeks 3– 5 ✅ C. It depends on causes D. We don’t really know Correct Answer: B. The heart develops in weeks 3– 5 Rationale: The fetal heart begins forming early, and structural defects often arise between weeks 3–5 of gestation. Question: A client says her baby responds to her voice. Her husband disagrees. What should the nurse say? A. It helps bonding B. The provider should check hearing C. The fetus can hear and respond D. Women imagine fetal movements Correct Answer: C. The fetus can hear and respond Rationale: By the second trimester, the fetus can hear and respond to sound, especially the mother’s voice. Question: A client says her baby jumped when she dropped a utensil. What should the nurse say? A. Report it to provider B. Fetuses respond to sound by 24 weeks C. It's the acoustic reflex D. It’s a coincidence Correct Answer: B. Fetuses respond to sound by 24 weeks Rationale: Fetal hearing is developed by 24 weeks, and responses like startling to loud noises are expected. 12.

Question: A woman asks the nurse what the placenta does in early pregnancy. What should the nurse explain? A. Produces nutrients B. Forms a barrier C. Secretes estrogen and progesterone D. Excretes prolactin and insulin Correct Answer: C. Secretes estrogen and progesterone Rationale: The placenta produces hormones vital for maintaining the pregnancy, especially estrogen and progesterone.

  1. Which cardiovascular findings should the nurse assess further in a client who is at 20- weeks gestation? A. Decrease in blood pressure. B. Increase in red blood cell production. C. Decrease in pulse rate. D. Increase in heart sounds (S1, S2). - - correct ans- - C. Decrease in pulse rate.
  2. A 31-year-old woman uses an over-the-counter (OTC) pregnancy test that is positive one week after a missed period. At the clinic, the client tells the nurse she takes phenytoin (Dilantin) for epilepsy, has a history of irregular periods, is under stress at work, and has not been sleeping well. The clients physical examination and ultrasound do not indicate that she is pregnant. How should the nurse explain the most likely cause for obtaining false-positive pregnancy test results? A. Being under too much stress at work. B. Using an anticonvulsant for epilepsy. C. Having an irregular menstrual cycle. D. Taking the pregnancy test too early. - - correct ans- - B. Using an anticonvulsant for epilepsy.

B. Wine can be consumed several times a week after the first trimester. C. During second trimester beer can be consumed without harm to the fetus. D. Abstinence is strongly recommended throughout the pregnancy. - - correct ans- - D. Abstinence is strongly recommended throughout the pregnancy.

  1. A female client who wants to delivery at home asks the nurse to explain the role of a nurse-midwife in providing obstetric care. What information should the nurse provide? A. Natural childbirth without analgesia is used to manage pain during labor. B. And obstetrician should also follow the client during pregnancy. C. Birth in the home setting is the preference for using a midwife for delivery. D. The pregnancy should progress normally and be considered low risk. - - correct ans- - D. The pregnancy should progress normally and be considered low risk.
  2. When discussing birth in a home setting with a group of pregnant women, which situation should the nurse include about the safety of a home birth? A. Medical back up should be available quickly in case of complications. B. The women's extended family should be allowed to attend the home birth. C. Only the woman and her midwife should be present during the delivery. D. The woman should live no more than 15 minutes from the hospital. - - correct ans- - A. Medical back up should be available quickly in case of complications.
  3. The nurse is discussing the stages of labor with a group of women in the last month of pregnancy and provide examples of different positional techniques used during the second stage of labor. Which position should the nurse address that provides the best advantage of gravity during delivery? A. Walking. B. Squatting.

C. Kneeling. D. Lithotomy. - - correct ans- - B. Squatting.

  1. A client in the first stage of active labor is using a shallow pattern of rapid breaths that is twice the normal adult breathing rate. The client complains of feeling lightheaded, dizzy, and states that her fingers are tingling. What action should the nurse implement? A. Notify the healthcare provider. B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. C. Help her breathe into a paper bag. D. Tell the client to slow her breathing. - - correct ans- - C. Help her breathe into a paper bag.
  2. A client in active labor at 39-weeks gestation tells the nurse she feels a wet sensation on the perineum. The nurse notices pale, straw-colored fluid with small white particles. After reviewing the fetal monitor strip for fetal distress, what action should the nurse implement? A. Clean the perineal area. B. Offer the client a bed pan. C. Escort the client to the bathroom. D. Perform a nitrazine test. - - correct ans- - D. Perform a nitrazine test.
  3. A client in early labor is having uterine contractions every 3 to 4 minutes, lasting an average of 55 to 60 seconds. An internal uterine pressure catheter (IUPC) is inserted. The intrauterine pressure is 65 to 70 mmHg at the peak of the contraction and the resting tone is 6 to 10 mmHg. Based on this information, what action should the nurse implement? A. Bring the delivery table to the room. B. Prepare to administer an oxytocic. C. Document the findings in the client record.

A. Grunting heard with a stethoscope. B. Diaphragmatic with chest retraction. C. Abdominal with synchronous chest movements. D. Shallow with an irregular rhythm. E. Chest breathing with nasal flaring. F. Rate of 58 breaths per minute. - - correct ans- - A. Grunting heard with a stethoscope. B. Diaphragmatic with chest retraction. E. Chest breathing with nasal flaring.

  1. What action should the nurse implement when caring for a newborn receiving phototherapy? A. Reposition every 6 hours. B. Apply an oil-based lotion to the skin. C. Limit the intake of formula. D. Place an eyeshield over the eyes. - - correct ans- - D. Place an eyeshield over the eyes.
  2. Which finding indicates to the nurse that a 4-day-old infant is receiving adequate breast milk? A. Gains 1 to 2 ounces per week. B. Defecates at least once per 24 hours. C. Saturates 6 to 8 diapers per day. D. Rests for 6 hours between feedings. - - correct ans- - C. Saturates 6 to 8 diapers per day.
  3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a gravid client who is being released from the hospital after placement of cerclage. Which instruction is the most important for the client to understand?

A. Arrange for home uterine monitoring. B. Plan for a possible cesarean birth. C. Report uterine cramping or low backache. D. Make arrangements for care at home. - - correct ans- - C. Report uterine cramping or low backache.

  1. A client at 28-weeks gestation arrives at the labor and delivery unit with a complaint of bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. For which diagnostic procedure should the nurse prepare the client? A. Contraction stress test. B. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio. C. Abdominal ultrasound. D. Internal fetal monitoring. - - correct ans- - C. Abdominal ultrasound.
  2. A nurse is planning for the care of a 30-year-old primigravida with pre-gestational diabetes. What is the most important factor affecting the clients pregnancy outcome? A. Degree of glycemic control during pregnancy. B. Mother's age. C. Amount of insulin required prenatally. D. Number of years since diabetes was diagnosed. - - correct ans- - A. Degree of glycemic control during pregnancy.
  3. A client with asthma who is 8-hours post-delivery is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage. Which prescription should the nurse administer? A. Oxytocin (Pitocin). B. Ibuprofen (Motrin).
  1. A primigravida at 37-weeks gestation tells the nurse that her "bag-of-water" has broken. While inspecting the client's perineum, the nurse notes that the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. What action should the nurse implement first? A. Give the healthcare provider a status report. B. Administer 10 L of oxygen via face mask. C. Wrap the cord with gauze soaked in saline. D. Place the client in the knee-chest position. - - correct ans- - D. Place the client in the knee- chest position.
  2. The nurse is caring for a client whose labor is being augmented with oxytocin (Pitocin). Which finding indicates that the nurse should discontinue the oxytocin infusion? A. The fetal heart rate is 180 bpm without variability. B. Amniotic membranes rupture. C. The client needs to void. D. Uterine contractions occur every 8 to 10 minutes. - - correct ans- - A. The fetal heart rate is 180 bpm without variability.
  3. The nurse on the postpartum unit receives a report for 4 clients during change of shift. Which client should the nurse assessed for risk of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)? A. A multiparous client receiving magnesium sulfate during induction for severe preeclampsia. B. A primiparous client who had an emergency cesarean birth due to fetal distress. C. A multigravida who delivered an 8 pound 2 ounce infant after an 8-hour labor. D. A primigravida who had a spontaneous birth of preterm twins. - - correct ans- - A. A multiparous client receiving magnesium sulfate during induction for severe preeclampsia.
  1. What nursing action should be included in the plan of care for a newborn experiencing symptoms of drug withdrawal? A. Play soft music and talk to soothe the infant. B. Feed every 4 to 6 hours to allow extra rest. C. Swaddle the infant snuggly and hold tightly. D. Administer chloral hydrate for sedation. - - correct ans- - C. Swaddle the infant snuggly and hold tightly.
  2. The father of a newborn tells the nurse, "My son just died." How should the nurse respond? A. "I am sorry for your loss." B. "I understand how you feel." C. "There is an angel in heaven." D. "You can have other children." - - correct ans- - A. "I am sorry for your loss."
  3. A macrosomic infant is in stable condition after a difficult forceps-assisted delivery. After obtaining the infant's weight at 4550 grams (9 lbs., 6 oz.), what is the priority nursing action? A. Assess newborn reflexes for signs of neurological impairment. B. Leave the infant in the room with the mother to foster attachment. C. Obtain serum glucose levels frequently while observing for signs of hypoglycemia. D. Perform a gestational age assessment to determine if the infant is large-forgestational- age. - - correct ans- - C. Obtain serum glucose levels frequently while observing for signs of hypoglycemia.
  4. An infant who weighs 3.8 kg is delivered vaginally at 39-weeks gestation with a nuchal cord after a 30-minute second stage. The nurse identifies petechiae over the face and upper back of the newborn. What information should the nurse provide to parents about this finding?

A. Perform a vaginal examination. B. Increase IV fluids. C. Administer oxygen. D. Monitor fetal status. E. Place the client in a lateral position. F. Assist client to a sitting position. - - correct ans- - B. Increase IV fluids. C. Administer oxygen. D. Monitor fetal status. E. Place the client in a lateral position.

  1. A client at 29-weeks gestation with possible placental insufficiency is being prepared for prenatal testing. Information about which diagnostic study should the nurse provide information to the client? A. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein. B. Amniocentesis. C. Chorionic villus sampling. D. Ultrasonography. - - correct ans- - D. Ultrasonography.
  2. The mother of a neonate asks the nurse why it is so important to keep the infant warm. What information should the nurse provide? A. The thick layer of subcutaneous fat is inadequate for insulation. B. Warmth promotes sleep so that the infant will grow quickly. C. A large body surface area favors heat loss to the environment. D. The kidneys and renal function are not fully developed. - - correct ans- - C. A large body surface area favors heat loss to the environment.
  1. The nurse observes a new mother avoiding eye contact with her newborn. Which action should the nurse take? A. Observe the mother for other attachment behaviors. B. Ask the mother why she won't look at the infant. C. Examine the newborn's eyes for the ability to focus. D. Recognize this as a common reaction in new mothers. - - correct ans- - A. Observe the mother for other attachment behaviors.
  2. The nurse notes an irregular bluish hue on the sacral area of a 1-day old Hispanic infant. How should the nurse document this finding? A. Harlequin sign. B. Acrocyanosis. C. Erythema toxicum. D. Mongolian spots. - - correct ans- - D. Mongolian spots.
  3. An infant with hyperbilirubinaemia is receiving phototherapy. What intervention should the nurse implement? A. Maintain NPO status. B. Monitor temperature. C. Apply skin lotion as prescribed. D. Change T-shirt every 3 hours. - - correct ans- - B. Monitor temperature.
  4. A neonate who is receiving an exchange transfusion for hemolytic disease develops respiratory distress, tachycardia, and a cutaneous rash. What nursing intervention should be implemented first? A. Inform the healthcare provider.
  1. The apnea monitor alarm sounds for the third time during one shift for a neonate who was delivered at 37-weeks gestation. What nursing action should be implemented first? A. Evaluate the newborn's color and respirations. B. Assess the functionality of the monitoring device. C. Provide tactile stimulation. D. Administer flow by 100% oxygen. - - correct ans- - A. Evaluate the newborn's color and respirations.
  2. What action should the nurse implement with the family when an infant is born with anencephaly? A. Ensure that measures to facilitate the attachment process are offered. B. Prepare the family to explore ways to cope with the imminent death of the infant. C. Provide emotional support to facilitate the consideration of fetal organ donation. D. Inform the family about multiple corrective surgical procedures that will be needed. - - correct ans- - B. Prepare the family to explore ways to cope with the imminent death of the infant.
  3. A client who is stable has family members present when the nurse enters the birthing suite to access the mother and newborn. What action should the nurse implement at this time? A. Do a brief assessment for only the infant while the family members are present. B. Reschedule the visit so that the mother and infant can be assessed privately. C. Ask to meet with the client and infant without family members present. D. Observe interactions of family members with the newborn and each other. - - correct ans-
    • D. Observe interactions of family members with the newborn and each other.
  1. A client at 39-weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. Her obstetrical history includes 3 live births at 39-weeks, 34-weeks, and 35-weeks gestation. Using the GTPAL system, which designation is the most accurate summary of the clients obstetrical history? A. 4 - 1 - 2 - 0 - 3. B. 3 - 1 - 1 - 1 - 3. C. 4 - 3 - 1 - 0 - 2. D. 3 - 0 - 3 - 0 - 3. - - correct ans- - A. 4- 1 - 2 - 0 - 3.
  2. A client delivers her first infant and asks the nurse if her skin changes from pregnancy are permanent. Which change should the nurse tell the client that will remain after pregnancy? A. Striae gravidarum. B. Chloasma. C. Vascular spiders. D. Pruritus. - - correct ans- - A. Striae gravidarum.
  3. The nurse administers meperidine (Demerol) 25 mg IV push to a laboring client, who delivers the infant 90 minutes later. What medication should the nurse anticipate administering to the infant? A. Naloxone (Narcan). B. Nalbuphine (Nubain). C. Promethazine (Phenergan). D. Fentanyl (Sublimaze). - - correct ans- - A. Naloxone (Narcan).
  4. A client in labor receives an epidural block. What intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Assess contractions.