Download FNP Fitzgerald - AANP exam Latest Questions 2025 With Correct Verified Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
FNP Fitzgerald - AANP exam Latest Questions
2025 With Correct Verified Answers
Anemia - correct answer>>Reduction in rbc ans hgb. Occurs when insult is severe enough to exceed the reserves Causes of anemia - correct answer>>Acute blood loss Chronic blood loss Reduced RBC production Premature destruction Acute rhinosinusitis - correct answer>>Inflammation of mucosal passages lasting greater then 4 weeks Most common pathogen in ABRS, CAP and AOM? - correct answer>>S. Pneumo H. influenza M. Catarrahalis What are the risk for DRSP in ABRS? - correct answer>>Age less then 2 or greater then 65 Daycare Prior abx in 1 month Prior hospitalization in 5 days Comorbidities Immune compromised First line empiric therapy for ABRS? - correct answer>>Augmentin 500/125 BID Secondary doxycycline 200mg Po daily or 2000mg augmentin BID What is the empiric treatment for ABRS for patient with PCN allergy? - correct answer>>Doxycycline or levofloxacin or moxifloxacin only use fluoroquinolones if DRSP is suspected. Avoid doxycycline in pregnancy and QT prolongation plus tendon rupture risk with FQ Which medication are CYP450 3A4 inhibitors? - correct answer>>Macrolides except Azithromycin Erythromycin and Clarithromycin
Causes substrate level to increase and cause toxicity Which medication is cyp450 inducer? - correct answer>>St. John's wart Reduced drug levels and makes medication ineffective Ex. Warfarin and St. John's wart reduces warfarin levels What is conductive hearing loss? - correct answer>>Local hearing loss caused by earwax, foreign object or ruptured ear drum, ear infection. Weber test sound lateralize to affected ear Rinne test negative resulting in bone conduction better then air conduction sensorineural hearing loss - correct answer>>hearing loss caused by damage to the cochlea's receptor cells or to the auditory nerves. allergic rhinitis and treatment? - correct answer>>an allergic reaction to airborne allergens that causes an increased flow of mucus. Avoid allergen 1st line therapy = intranasal corticosteroids such as Fluticasone and adjunctively LTM can be added such as singulair Reliever therapy = second Generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) or cetrizine (Zyrtec) Syphilitic chancre - correct answer>>Mostly occurs in anogential area and goes away in 3 weeks Apathaous stomatitis - correct answer>>Also known as canker sore... very tender and painful Cranial nerves mnemonic? - correct answer>>Oh oh oh towering tops A Finn and German viewed some Hops! Oh, Oh, Oh, To Touch And Feel Virgin Girls' Vaginas and Hymens. Olfactory = smell Optic = vision Oculomotor = eyelid and eye ball movement Trochlear = eye movement in and out Trigeminal = chewing, face and mouth, touch and pain Abducens = look side to side
Treatment for strep throat? - correct answer>>Penicillin V PO for 10 days if adherence issue then use benzathine IM 1 dose can use augmentin If PCN allergic? Use Z pack for 5 days or macrolide otitis media with effusion or swimmers ear - correct answer>>Examination will reveal fullness in ear, air bubbles in Tympanic membrane. Treat allergic rhinitis symptoms acute otitis media - correct answer>>Redness in TM and bulging abx amoxi or augmentin Cefdinir or Azithromycin for pcn allergy What is varicella and treatment? - correct answer>>Chickenpox... present in children or adults... droplet precautions plus contact Clinical presentation with fever and miserable itch 2 - 3 mm vesicles start on trunk and move to limbs Treatment with antiviral such as acyclovir within 24 to 48 H 2 doses of immunization = 99 percent immunity shingles (herpes zoster)? - correct answer>>Occurs in age 50 or older and vaccine given at 60 or above Have to have history of varicella Droplet plus contact precaution Pain plus itch UNILATERAL DERMATOME pattern Treatment high dose antiviral such as acyclovir What kind of lesions does poison ivy has? - correct answer>>Linear Annular lesion? - correct answer>>Lyme disease bulls eye fashion Clustered lesion? - correct answer>>HSV pattern Scattered lesion - correct answer>>Rubeola confluence lesion? - correct answer>>Psoriasis What is Imiquimod cream used for? - correct answer>>Verruca vulgaris Psoriasis vulgaris treatment? - correct answer>>Medium potency steroids
Tinea pedis treatment? - correct answer>>Topical Ketoconazole Rosacea Treatment? - correct answer>>Metronidazole Pityriasis rosea? - correct answer>>Mostly proceeds by a herald patch and has Christmas tree patterns. Most likely location of occurrence? - correct answer>>Pityriasis rosea = herald patch on the trunk Eczema = antecubital fossa Psoriasis vulgaris = anterior surfaces of knee Actinic Keratoses = sun exposed areas such as head Over waist band area = scabies What is the treatment for scabies? - correct answer>>Premethrin lotion What is the treatment of poison ivy? - correct answer>>Med or high potency streroids topical If >20 percent body involvement or rash impacts face, gentian area or inhibits occupation function use prednisone 0.5 to 1mg/kg for 10 to 14 days Honey crusted lesion? Treatment? - correct answer>>Impetigo... non bullous = topical mupirocin Treatment for non purulent cellulitis/erysipelas/impetigo? - correct answer>>Penicillin VK or Diclixacillin Treatment for purulent such as abscess/carbuncle/furuncle? - correct answer>>I & D Bactrim or doxy Which 2 hormones does the thyroid produce? - correct answer>>T3 and T4. They act as cellular energy What is hypothyroidism? - correct answer>>Reduced cellular energy or high TSH. Normal 0.4 to 4. What are sign and symptoms of hypothyroidism? - correct answer>>Think low energy... thick dry skin Hung up pattelar reflex, overall hyporeflexia
How often do you check TSH after starting a patient on synthroid? - correct answer>> 8 weeks How much do you Increase the levothyroxine dosage by if pregnancy is detected? - correct answer>>By 33% When and how do you take synthroid? What meds to shouldn't be taken together? - correct answer>>Take it on empty stomach with full glass of water Do not take within 2 hours of cation, such as calcium, iron, aluminum or magnesium What is the TSH goal when treating patient with levothyroxine? - correct answer>>1. TSH = 84 and free T4 = 3? Hypo or hyper? - correct answer>>Hypo TSH = 0.15 and free T4 = 79? Hypo or hyper? - correct answer>>Hyper Treatment for hyperthyroidism? - correct answer>>B1 B2 blockade with propanalol or beta blocker to counter act tremor and tachycardia? End treatment is ablation or PTU TSH = 15 and free T4 = 15? - correct answer>>Subclinical hypothyroidism... treat any TSH of > What are the findings of a malignant thyroid nodule? - correct answer>>Size larger then 4cm Hx of head or neck radiation Firmness, nontender on palpation Immobile Persistent non cervical lymphadenopathy Dysphonia What are sign and symptoms of Graves' disease? - correct answer>>Autoimmune disorder Multi system presentation including exopathalmos ( bulging of the eyes), tachycardia, proximal muscle weakness and goiter Normal DTR? - correct answer>>2+ Proximal muscle strength? - correct answer>>Upper arms, thighs and shuffling gait
Hypereflexemiab DTR? - correct answer>>3~4 plus asymptomatic cause of hypercalcemia? - correct answer>>Primary hyperparathyroidism Sign and symptoms of PTH? - correct answer>>Loss of energy, poor concentration, depression, osteoporosis, insomnia, GERD, decrease libido, hair loss and joint and bone Aches. Which medication class do you use to prevent bone loss? - correct answer>>Bisphosphonate What is a primary headache and type? - correct answer>>Not associated with other disease. Most common type is tension then migraine and cluster Secondary headache? - correct answer>>Associated with other conditions, such as intracranial bleeding, IOP, meningitis, HTN and giant cell arteritis Thunder clap headache? - correct answer>>Subarachnoid hemorrhage. Headache with activity such as exertion, sexual activity, coughing and sneezing? - correct answer>>Suggestive increased IOP Which neurological changes is the only expected finding acceptable in a headache? - correct answer>>Photophobia and phonophobia What is tension type headache? - correct answer>>Bilateral headche with pressure and pain, lasts 30 min to 7 days Migraine without aura? - correct answer>>Throbbing pain in one side of headache, worse above eye and base of skull. Clustered? - correct answer>>Really strong constant pain behind one eye along with watery and runny nose. Migraine with aura? - correct answer>>Family history of 70 to 90 percent Symptoms include feeling dreadful, anxiety, GI upset, unusual fatigue and visual and olfactory alteration Treatment of primary headache? - correct answer>>Avoid triggers such as alcohol and certain cheeses, sleep and altered routine.
What is microcytic hypochromic anemia with increase RDW? - correct answer>>IDA... chronic low volume blood loss is the most common cause Neutrophil acts on which type of infection? - correct answer>>Bacterial Lymphocytes acts on which type of infection? - correct answer>>Virus. When lymphocytes is 55% and neutrophils is 40% cause is most likely viral If the WBC is greater then 10K then infection is most likely? - correct answer>>Bacterial and neutrophils will be elevated. Eosinophils raise is seen in which diseases? - correct answer>>Allergens Worms and weird diseases What is acute appendicitis? - correct answer>>Intraabdominal abscess caused by an bacterial infection. Right lower quadrant abdominal pain causes nausea. Positive Psoas and obturator sign is seen with which disease? - correct answer>>Acute appendicitis Drinking lots of alcohol with acute epigastric pain radiating to back with bloating, nausea and vomiting. Epigastric tenderness, hypoactive bowel sounds, abdomen distended and hypertympenic. Labs will show increase lipase and amylase - correct answer>>Acute pancreatitis Soft abdomen, tenderness to LLQ, abdominal palpation, negative blumbergs sign (rebound tenderness). Labs reveal leukocytosis with neutrophilia? - correct answer>>Diverticulitis Tenderness at the epigastrium, LUQ, slight hyperactive Bowel sounds - correct answer>>Duodenal ulcer. Conduct urea breath test or H. Pylori test.... feels better with foods and worst with empty stomach, antacids. Treatment for diverticulitis? - correct answer>>Metronidazole or cipro Use of NSAIDS chronically... and pain in the LUQ with hyperactive bowel sounds - correct answer>>Erosive gastritis Epigastric pain RUQ, positive murphys sign [deep upper abdominal papation], moderately elevated AST, ALT, and ALP? - correct answer>>Cholecystitis
Match the hep with acquisition method? Fecal contaminated water Injection drug use Sexual contact - correct answer>>Hepatitis A Hepatitis C Hepatitis B HsbAG = positive means hepB virus is on board Anti HaV = positive means immune to HepA Anti HCV = negative not immune to HEPC - correct answer>>You can't have the virus and be immune st the same time. So this person has chronic hep B infection. Sign and symptoms of viral hepatitis? - correct answer>>Fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, gray colored BM, joint pain and jaundice All pregnant women should be screened for which hepatitis? - correct answer>>Hepatitis B, infants born to HBsAG positive mothers should be screened for hep B When is Hep A and B given? - correct answer>>Hep A given at 1 year of age and 2 doses 6 months apart HepB is given at the time of birth then 2,4, In adults 3 doses given over a 6 month period Which test is used for treatment and detection of H pylori? - correct answer>>Fecal antigen test Which bacteria causes pneumonia? - correct answer>>S. Pneumonia M. Pneumonia C. Pneumonia and respiratory viruses Which antibiotic is given for pneumonia in a healthy patient? No DRSP risk or comorbidities? - correct answer>>Doxycycline or macrolides For DRSP use high dose amoxicillin and flouroquinolone What is macrolides and FQ use associated with? - correct answer>>Potential QT prolongation, increase risk of CV death and FQ with tendon rupture
Risk factors for TB? - correct answer>>HIV infection History of Positive PPD History of prior TB treatment TB exposure Travel to emigration from an area where TB is endemic Homelessness, shelter-dwelling, incarceration What is type 1 diabetes? - correct answer>>Occurs in teen and young adults Its is an autoimmune disorder in which beta cell destruction leads to insulin deficiency What is type 2 diabetes? - correct answer>>Insulin resistance caused over years When do you test people for type 2 diabetes? - correct answer>>Many risk factors and above age 45 If normal results test every 3 years Tests to diagnose type 2 diabetes? - correct answer>>Fasting glucose of >126 (fast for 8H) Random >200 mg/dL with symptoms 2H plasma glucose of >200 with 75g sugar load A1C of > 6. ADA goal of A1C for adults? - correct answer>><7% Young adults <6% Elderly <8% When to discontinue metformin? - correct answer>>Impaired renal function with GFR of < Advanced age > 48H after surgery due to lactic acidosis risk Metformin causes B12 deficiency with long term intake What is the 2nd line medication after metformin? - correct answer>>Sulfanourea Doesn't work in type 1 diabetes, because needs beta cells to function. It is insulin releaser DPP-4 inhibitors (gliptins)? - correct answer>>Januvia and etc Increases risk of pancreatitis and has unexplained joint aches, this is when you should DC the drug.
GLP1 agonist (tides)? Injection only! - correct answer>>Slows gastric emptying slows down which reduces appetite causing weight loss. Major adverse effect is nausea and vomiting Contraindicated in Gastroparesis (neuropathy of the gut) Good candidate for younger patient What are SGLT2? (Flozins) - correct answer>>Cangaflozin and etc Glucose excreted through urine Weight loss and increase UTI risk due to glucose lost in urine Watch for diabetic ketoacidosis When to use insulin in DM treatment? - correct answer>>When the A1C is greater then 9 with symptoms such as polyuria and polydipsia and etc When >2 standard agents are ineffective Names of rapid acting insulin? Peak and duration time? - correct answer>>Insulin Lispro, glulisine, aspart Onset of action in 15 mins Peak in 1 H Duration of action 4H Short acting insulin and peaks? - correct answer>>Regular insulin, Humulin R and Novolin R Onset 30 mins Peak 2-3H Duration 3-6 H Long acting insulin names and peak? Basal - correct answer>>Insulin detemir Glargine Lantus, toujeo Onset 1-2 H peak none Duration 24H Intermediate insulin? - correct answer>>NPH trade name Novolin N and humulin N Onset 1-2 H and peak 6-14 H 16 - 24 H duration Start patient on aspirin 75mg with age 50 or greater. - correct answer>>Check microalbumin every year on diabetics
Treatment includes systemic propranolol or corticosteroids Get the child to pediderm A birthmark often appearing as a rubbery, bright red nodule of extra blood vessels. Port wine lesion? - correct answer>>Disorder of dermal capillaries and post venules Associated with other congenital or genetic syndrome Lesion follows branches of trigeminal nerve and will not go away... blanchable Erythema toxicum neonatorum? - correct answer>>Erythmatous papules that dont progress Not a serious disease Watchful waiting goes away by 5-7 days Atopic dermatitis? - correct answer>>Impaired epidermal layer Causes dryness and itching Management by hydrating skin, antihistamine and steroids Acne neonatrum? - correct answer>>Baby acne Resolves on it own Sebboric dermatitis? Cradle cap? - correct answer>>Erythmateous plaque Appears greasy with yellown scales In infants In head apply petroleum For other parts ketoconazole 2% common in age 1 to 3 Keratosis pilaris? - correct answer>>Hyperkertanization of hair follicles Rough skin texture and gooseflesh appearance No care necessary just lotion Define community acquired pneumonia? - correct answer>>Infection of lungs and bronchi, caused by select pathogens What are the most common pathogens found in CAP? - correct answer>>S. Pneumonia M. Pneumonia C. Pneumonia and respiratory viruses Macrolide use is associated with what problem? - correct answer>>QT prolongation and increased CV death.
Whats a common pathogen associated with tobacco related lung disease? - correct answer>>H. Influenza (gram negative bacillus), most common with COPD What is the minimum diagnostic evaluation in CAP? - correct answer>>CBC with WBC differential and chest X ray Recommended timing of treatment for CAP? - correct answer>> 5 - 7 days CAP recommended treatment in patient with No DRSP risk? - correct answer>>Doxy or macrolide Comorbidities including COPD, diabetes. Renal or hepatic failure, asplenia, alcoholism, and recent antibiotic use in 3 months patient which antibiotic to give for pneumonia? - correct answer>>Respiratory FQ or doxycycline with beta lactam CURB 65 - correct answer>>Confusion BUN greater then 19 RR of > Hypotension 90/ Age 65 What is consolidation? - correct answer>>Dense = dull Increased tactile fremitus in pneumonia due to infection of lung and dense tissue What is most common cause of acute bronchitis? - correct answer>>RSV 90% of time Treatment for acute bronchitis related to virus? - correct answer>>Albuterol Muscaranic antagonist (Atrovent) And systemic corticosteroids for 3-5 days Treatment for bacteria related bronchitis? - correct answer>>Macrolide or doxy Risk factors of TB? - correct answer>>HIV infection history positive PPD History of prior TB treatment TB exposure Travel to country with endemic Homelessness, shelter-dwelling and incarceration Clinical presentation of TB? - correct answer>>Unexpected weight loss
Increase AP diameter (COPD) What is sign and symptoms of COPD? - correct answer>>Chronic cough, chronic sputum production, activity intolerance, symptoms typically progress over time What is COPD? - correct answer>>Preventable and treatable disease with some significant extra pulmonary effect. Airflow limitation not fully reversible BP =? - correct answer>>HR (heart rate) x SV (stroke volume) Definition of HTN? - correct answer>>defect of vascular system leading to target organ damage. HTN effect on Brain - correct answer>>Stroke, vascular dementia HTN effect on CV syste, - correct answer>>Atherosclerosis , MI, LVH, HF HTN efffect on Kidney - correct answer>>HTN nephropathy, renal failure HTN effect on eye - correct answer>>HTN retinopathy with risk of blindness HTN retinopathy - correct answer>>retinal vascular damage caused by poorly controlled HTN Four grades Grade I: narrowing of the terminal arteriolar branches Grade II: Narrowing of the arterioles wit severe local constriction. Grade III (DBP> 110): Flame shaped hemorrhages, Potential permanent finding Grade IV (DBP> 130): Papilla edema with preceding signs, potential for permanent vision loss Who is at the highest risk of COPD exacerbation and death? - correct answer>>History if
2 exacerbation within a year FEV< 50% Hospitalization for COPD What is FEV1 to FVC ration in COPD? - correct answer>><.70 post bronchodilator treatment Primary meds in HTN management - correct answer>>Thiazide diuretics (HCTZ)
ACE inhibitors (-Pril) ARD (-sartans) CCB (-pine) Beta Blocker (-olol) Aldosterone Antagonist (-one) Dyslipidemia labs - correct answer>>Total Cholestrol, LDL-c, HDL-C, Triglyceride after 12 hours of fast, non-caloric liquid allowed Which test to confirm in patient with family hx of COPD in European descent and under 40? - correct answer>>Alpha 1 Antitrypsin deficiency screening Mechanism of action in thiazide diuretic and side effects? - correct answer>>Low volume sodium depletion that leads to PVR reduction Calcium sparring and monitor for Na, K, MG depletion. Ace inhibitors and ARB side effects and example? - correct answer>>Ace inhibitors ends in Pril ARB ends in saratan Ace inhibitors Do not use in presence of bilateral renal artery stenosis. Modest hyperkalemia risk AceI induced cough Do not use in pregnancy CCB side effects? - correct answer>>Ends in pine (amlodipine) Causes ankle edema due to vasodilation effect Avoid use with heart failure Beta blockers - correct answer>> When do you give antibiotics in pneumonia? - correct answer>>If patient has increased dyspnea, increased sputum production, or increased sputum purulence Which antibiotics given in moderate COPD? - correct answer>>Amoxiciliin Doxy or bactrim Life style modification for HTN - correct answer>>Weight reduction for hypertension and dyslipidemia DASH eating diet Dietary sodium reduction in HTN
