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FNP BOARDS AANP PEARLS/key Latest Exam
Practice 2025-2026 With Correct Verified
Answers
bulls eye rash and tx - correct answer>>Lyme- doxy rash from extremities spreading to torso and tx and tx if pregnant - correct answer>>Rocky Mountain spider fever. tx- doxy. If pregnant: amoxicillin fingers and toes have burrowing and tx - correct answer>>Scabies. tx- promethean cream and wash everything with hot water Eczema is associated with what two things - correct answer>>Asthma and allergy Itchy rash in a circle with central clearing. tx and dx and aka name - correct answer>>ring worm aka Tinea. dx: amtifungal cream - zole Black or tan pasted on spots - correct answer>>Seborrheic Keratosis (benign) MRSA tx - correct answer>>Bactrim Skin infections abx - correct answer>>penicillin/ceph skin infections but ax to PCN - correct answer>>-mycins Mastitis treatment - correct answer>>dicloxacillin honey crusted lesions and tx, cx - correct answer>>Impetigo. cx: strep/strap. sand paper rash - correct answer>>scarlet fever(from untx strep) can lead to rheumatoid fever and glomerulonephritis Christmas tree rash - correct answer>>Pityriasis rosea Dome shaped white encapsulated rash - flush colored. indicates what and tx - correct answer>>Molluscum Contagious, no tx- will resolve in weeks/months. HIGHLY contagious. .near genitals --> rape. Painful cluster vestibules errthytema - correct answer>>Herpes
squamous cell carcinoma dx - correct answer>>biopsy tx for Ezema/atopic dermatitis - correct answer>>Topical steroids Shingles. vaccine and tx - correct answer>>shingles vaccine >50 or >18 if immunocompromised. tx. <48 hours then Acyclovir Various stages of healing lesions - correct answer>>chicken pox aka Vericella. Vaccine
1yo Facial rash sparing nasolabial folds and tx - correct answer>>rosacea. Tx: no sun, tx: flatly or - ozole Slapped cheek rash. tx, caution - correct answer>>No contagious, keep away from pregnant women cause miscarriages. viral so no tx. starts with fever than lacy net like rash 3 emergent eye case - correct answer>>retinal detachment, papilla edema, acute- closure glaucoma sudden onset of severe eye pain, firm and blurry vision. cloudy halo cornea. is and tx - correct answer>>acute angle glaucoma. ER! PEARL: curtain pulled over vision, sudden floaters. tx - correct answer>>retinal
detachment. tx- ER *PEARL: OPTIC DISC SWELLING WITH BLURRED EDGES - correct answer>>Papilledema. caused by HTN cupping of optic disc. peripheral vision loss. - correct answer>>glaucoma "cant drive" s/s eye - correct answer>>open angle glaucoma retinal hemorrhage. AV nicking. copper wiring - correct answer>>Hypertension retinopathy cotton wool spots and retinal hemorrhaging - correct answer>>diabetic retinopathy
■ STEROID NASAL SPRAY BID to TID × few weeks or saline nasal spray (OCEAN spray) PRN. ■ Allergic rhinitis, STEROID nasal sprays with long-acting oral antihistamine (ZYRTEC). otitis external treatment - correct answer>>- Antibiotic/Steroid combination drops
- NSAIDs - pain control Xanthelasma treatment - correct answer>>high lipid levels s/s. fat deposits on eye lids mono sports recommendation - correct answer>>once spleen is not enlarged on US: 4- 6 weeks Pearl: Pulsating abdominal mass - correct answer>>abdominal aortic aneurysm. DO NOT PALPATE. ER! statins look out for what s/s to stop. can cause - correct answer>>if dark urine or muscle pain = STOP. can cause Rhabdomylosis. BP meds safe in pregnancy - correct answer>>New little mama- Nifedipine, Labetalol, Methyldopa S3 - correct answer>>heart failure or pregnancy s4 - correct answer>>hypertrophy of the ventricle or HTN s3 normal in - correct answer>>athletics, pregnancy and children Heart murmurs locations and name - correct answer>>All people take money. Aortic right ICS 2nd pulmonary ICS left 2nd. Tricuspid 4/5th ICS. Mitral 5th ICS no p wave is what heart condition - correct answer>>A-fib PAD vs PVD - correct answer>>PAD: black/cool/hairless. relieved at rest. PVD: relieved with elevation. brown skin. wear compression stockings Thiazides increase - correct answer>>glucose. triglycerides, uria
Splinter hemorrhages s/s of - correct answer>>Endocarditis Osler noders- painful red lesions on hands/feet or Janeway lesions of small red muscles on palm/soles is sign of - correct answer>>Endocarditis Check what before starting statins - correct answer>>liver enzymes DVT order what test - correct answer>>D-dimer Raynauds dx and tx - correct answer>>cold blue fingers. tx: CCB avoid what BP meds with GERD - correct answer>>CCB--pines If BPH and HTN then give what medication - correct answer>>-Terazosin If Diabetic and HTN then give what BP med - correct answer>>ACE or ARB avoid NSAID In - correct answer>>cardiovascular pts/HTN Pulsus paradoxus. what it is and what it indicates - correct answer>>Drop in BP during inspiration >10. Indicates a heart/respiratory dx Avoid these classes in Pregnancy - correct answer>>ACE (--pril) or ARB (--sartan) class to avoid BP meds if CHF - correct answer>>no CCB IF metabolic syndrome then avoid what class - correct answer>>thiazide meds avoid this BP med in kidney dx - correct answer>>thiazide avoid this BP med in gout dx - correct answer>>thiazide COPD avoid what BP class - correct answer>>avoid - lol BB Asthma avoid what BP class - correct answer>>avoid - lol BB Abdominal bruit heard with - correct answer>>Renal stenosis/hypertension Palpable murmur is what grade - correct answer>>grade 4
Upper lobe infiltrates means. vs lower lobes? - correct answer>>Lower lobes- pneumonia Upper lobe- TB TB induration mm for positive, for immunocompromised/immigrants etc - correct answer>>normal: >
10 if immigrants 5 if immunocompromised or health care workers tx for pneumonia. tx if abx <3 months - correct answer>>Macrobid, amoxicillin, or doxy. if <3 months then --floxacin pearl dx for cough at nighttime - correct answer>>Asthma FEV1 diagnosis for asthma - correct answer>>if FEV1 <80% community acquired pneumonia tx - correct answer>>--floxacin child community acquired pneumonia - correct answer>>amoxicillim FEV1/FVC ratio dx for COPD is - correct answer>><0.
Pertussis vaccine and tx - correct answer>>TDap vaccine. tx: Azithromycin Dx for egophony/tactile fremitus - correct answer>>pneumonia This medication cannot be given alone in asthma1 - correct answer>>--terol long acting beta agonist LABA Hyperthyroidism tx - correct answer>>PTU or tapazole (third trimester) what dx is hyperthyroidism - correct answer>>Graves starting levothyroxine dose for elderly - correct answer>>12.5mg starting elderly what dx is with hypothyroidism - correct answer>>Hashimotos what A1C do you start insulin - correct answer>>A1c <
electrolytes in Addisons and hallmark sign - correct answer>>low Na, High K, low cortisol. tan/bronzy skin Cushings electrolytes - correct answer>>hypernatremia and hypokalemia and high cortisol If glucose high in 3-8am, solution is? this is called - correct answer>>Dawn effect. give more long acting insulin If glucose drops too low in the middle of the night 3am- tx - correct answer>>bedtime snack or decrease night time insulin. Somogyi effect A1c for diabetes - correct answer>>6.5% or above Stop metformin for what px - correct answer>>CT with dye, 2 days prior monitor what labs with metformin and stop if what lab results - correct answer>>monitor renal and GFR. if GFR >46- half dosing stop if GFR is < Myxedema coma - correct answer>>extreme hypothyroidism(abrupt med cessation), rare with a high mortality rate = decreased cardiac output. tx: amiordone or lithium, Graves dx gold tx - correct answer>>Iodine tx Jelly stool, sausage shape mass - correct answer>>Intussusception = REFER Olive shape mass, projectile vomiting - correct answer>>Pyloric stenosis = REFER GERD 1st line tx 2nd line - correct answer>>H2 blocker: Pepcid/famtodine 2nd line is - prazole HIDA scan is for - correct answer>>cholecystitis Barrett's esophagus cx from what dx, treatment - correct answer>>Treat GERD symptoms: so give them a PPI. caused from GERD. colonoscopy start and q - correct answer>>start age 45/50 q10years
pyelonephirits tx - correct answer>>fluroquinolones like cipro triptan meds but avoid in - correct answer>>for migranes. avoid in HTN, coronary artery dx and SSRIs?SNRI. can only use <2x/week Prophylaxis of headaches - correct answer>>BB, TCA - triptyline, topamax Brudzinski's sign, indicates - correct answer>>indicates: Meningitis. pain with resistance and involuntary flex of hip/knee when neck is flexed to chest when lying supine Kernig's sign - correct answer>>indicates: Meningitis. a diagnostic sign for meningitis marked by the person's inability to extend the leg completely when the thigh is flexed upon the abdomen and the person is sitting or lying down Migrane criteria - correct answer>>5 headaches lasting 4-72 hrs abortive meds for migraines - correct answer>>triptans: aspirin Tylenol Ergotamine/Cafiene Cafegot ferocet) cranial nerve for trigeminal neuralgia and tx - correct answer>>Tegretol tx. CN 5 Bells palsy cranial nerve and tx - correct answer>>cranial nerve 7. steroid and antiviral meds tx. eyedrops to prevent corneal abrasion smell is which Cranial nerve - correct answer>>CN 1 eye is which Cranial nerve - correct answer>>3,4, shoulder movement is which Cranial nerve - correct answer>> 11 Ears/webber and Rinnie is which Cranial nerve - correct answer>>CN 8 prophylaxis for migrane and differential sign - correct answer>>propranolol and differential sign is photophobia Cluster headache differential - correct answer>>same Time everyday
MMSE exam score for alzheimers - correct answer>>< levy body dementia - correct answer>>the second most common type of dementia. POSTURAL/instability, resting tremor seizure meds - correct answer>>keppra, valproic acid, topamax (also for h/a), lamictal Valporic Acid (Depakote) monitor, for - correct answer>>For seizures. cant use with: hepatic dx. careful with using Phenytoin with what medication, use, monitor, s/e - correct answer>>for seizures, decreases birth control effectiveness. monitor LFT, s/e hirtutis, and gingival hyperplasia Tegretol use, monitor, leads to - correct answer>>use: seizures and trigeminal neuralgia. monitor CBC and every 3 months. leads to: bone marrow suppression, and agranulocytosis topamax is contraindicated and used for - correct answer>>used for seizures and migranes. contraindicated in renal or liver dx scaphoid fx (snuff box) is where and tx - correct answer>>tenderness over wrist/thumb. thumb splint, f/u in two weeks and get x-ray Osteoarthritis vs osteoporosis recommendations - correct answer>>Osteoarthritis is non-weight bearing: swimming, stationary bike. Osteoporosis: weight bearing like weight lifting and walking osteoporosis tx - correct answer>>Bisphosphonates (sit up and take w full glass water); calcium and vitamin D supplementation. Rheumatoid Arthritis vs Osteoarthritis - correct answer>>morning stiffness lasting > mins is RA 3 antipsych meds that cause increase in BS and weight and cholesterol. contraindicated in metabolic syndrome - correct answer>>Rispersal, seroquel, and Zyprexa Acute serotonin syndrome s/s - correct answer>>high HR, temp, muscle rigid SSRI/SNRI take how long to work - correct answer>> 4 - 6 weeks
Positive, probable and presumptive signs of pregnancy - correct answer>>Positive- medical (fetal heart tones/US. probable is Chadwicks and Goodall. presumptive: presuming/mom thinks fundus height - correct answer>>12 week-above symphysis pubis 16 wks- midway bet symphysis and umbilicus 20 at umbilicus if >2cm off then US AFP is drawn at and indicates - correct answer>>at 16-20 weeks. for Downs Rhogram is given - correct answer>>at 28 weeks and within 72 hours of delivery to mom white reflex is - correct answer>>Retinal blastoma MMR and Varicella are first given at what age? - correct answer>> 12 - 15 mo Tdap vaccine, must be __ Yo - correct answer>>>9yo HPV vaccine - correct answer>>>age 9. a vaccine that can prevent cervical cancer, pre- cancerous genital lesions (or sores), and genital warts caused by genital HPV infection Weight of baby doubles when and triples when - correct answer>>doubles at 6 months and triples by 12 months Primary amenorrhea is but what age - correct answer>>no period by age 15 influenza vaccine must be > age - correct answer>>>6 months Osgood-Schlatter disease - correct answer>>Normal in growing teens. inflammation or irritation of the tibia at its point of attachment with the patellar tendon heterogeneous means you have __ % of carrying the gene - correct answer>>25% chance of carrying the gene Tanner syndrome is and have problems with - correct answer>>short stature and webbed neck. problems with fertility Slip capital - correct answer>>head of femoral slipped out. in adolescence
osteonecrosis. test and s/s - correct answer>>death of bone tissue due to insufficient blood supply. s/s limping and uneven lengths. trendelenburg test Trendelenburg test - correct answer>>Hip dysfunctions. The patient stands and rises one foot and then the other while the doctor observes the buttocks. Positive sign is when the buttock drops on the side that the foot is elevated indicating hip abductor weakness on the stance leg side. Wilms vs Neuroblastoma - correct answer>>NEUROBLASTOMA mass crosses the midline, wills does not. (wimp-wilms) Neuroblastoma calcifies and encases vessels rather than invades. Can be born with neuroblastoma, cant be born with Wilms physical exam findings of conductive hearing loss? - correct answer>>patients with conductive hearing loss will have sound lateralization to their impaired ear with the Weber test, and bone conduction is greater than air conduction with the Rinne test (C). PAP smears start when and q - correct answer>>start age 21-65, every 3 years Mammogram - correct answer>> 50 - 75, q2 years colonscopy - correct answer>> 50 - 75. q10years Donepezil. tx for - correct answer>>alzheimers McMurray Test - correct answer>>compression of the meniscus of the knee combined with internal and external rotation while the patient is face-up to assess the integrity of the meniscus Murphy's test - correct answer>>Screening test for cholecystitis Palpable tenderness in RUQ during inspiration Blumberg's sign - correct answer>>The experience of sharp, stabbing pain as the compressed area returns to a noncompressed state Markle sign - correct answer>>pain elicited in a certain area of the abdomen when the standing patient drops from standing on toes to the heels with a jarring landing. appenciticitis
Scoliosis curvature of____ degrees is considered moderate scoliosis, and most cases require bracing for correction Bracing is considered ineffective if the curvature is > ___degrees because the patient has reached the threshold for surgical intervention - correct answer>>Scoliosis is a complex spinal deformity defined as a curve in the spine of at least 10 degrees. A curvature of 25 to 40 degrees is considered moderate scoliosis, and most cases require bracing for correction (C). Braces are offered for treatment in patients who are skeletally immature and have curves > 30 degrees at the first visit. Bracing is considered ineffective if the curvature is > 45 degrees because the patient has reached the threshold for surgical intervention honey crusted lessons, can return to school, tx - correct answer>>Nonbullous impetigo. tx: Topical mupirocin cream. children can return to school 24 hours after starting treatment. Methotrexate monitoring, deficiency in - correct answer>>Liver enzymes monthly, and use contraception deficiency in folate sausage-shaped mass vs olive shape - correct answer>>sausage-shaped mass is intussception. Olive shape is pyloric stenosis avoiding estrogen-containing contraception until postpartum. which ones can they use - correct answer>>The WHO advises avoiding estrogen-containing contraception until 6 months postpartum for those breastfeeding due to the possibility that it could reduce the breast milk supply. Thus, progestin-only contraception, such as oral norethindrone (Aygestin) (D), or nonhormonal contraception, such as a copper IUD electrolyte s/e from lasix - correct answer>>They can also cause a loss of other electrolytes, including potassium, magnesium, and calcium gynmastia s/e of which diuretic - correct answer>>k sparing (spirvloacatone) Thiazide diuretics - correct answer>>decrease potassium and sodium, absorb calcium. high urea, high glucose meds that cause Osteoporosis - correct answer>>SSRI, depakote, and PPIs (--azole) peripheral edema is most common s/e in what BP med - correct answer>>CCB - pine diuretic for osteoporosis - correct answer>>thiazide
kidney damage is most common risk from this Bp med - correct answer>>ACE - pril sand paper rash/erythematous tongue with a strawberry appearance, dx, and tx - correct answer>>scarlet fever this is amoxicillin, dx rapid strep /throat cx EKG of P waves embedded in the QRS - correct answer>>SVT Wide QRS - correct answer>>ventricular dysrhythmia lack of P waves and variable intervals between QRS complexes - correct answer>>a fib Trendelenburg gait - correct answer>>Associated with weak gluteus medius causing lurching and drastic pelvic tilting on affected side. When the foot is flat the hip literally goes out. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis - correct answer>>occurs when the head of the femur becomes displaced due to a separation at the growth plate Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (LCPD) - correct answer>>Blood supply to the bone of the ball of the ball-and-socket hip (ball of the femur or femoral head) is impaired. Affects the top of the leg bone that fits into the hip joint (avascular necrosis of the hip) developmental dysplasia of the hip - correct answer>>abnormal development of the hip joint found that is congenital Sx: fat rolls asymmetrical, abnormal leg length, AROM limited Tx: Cast, surgery, PT Tests: US (ultrasonogram), x-ray of hips, AROM testing of hips tb mesasurement - correct answer>>Patients with induration ≥ 5 mm are considered positive for TB if they have an HIV infection, have been in close contact with someone who has TB, are organ transplant recipients, or are immunocompromised. Patients with induration ≥ 10 mm are considered positive for TB if they are healthcare workers, a resident in a healthcare facility, belong to a medically underserved population, < 4 years of age, or a recent immigrant. All patients with induration ≥ 15 are considered positive for TB, even if they have no risk factors.
Honey-colored crusting around the mouth (B) is consistent with - correct answer>>impetigo Diabetes-related neuropathy is initially tested in the office through - correct answer>>proprioception, vibration, and monofilament testing (D Physical exam reveals a pink, scaly patch with dilated blood vessels on the top portion of the lesion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? - correct answer>>The most likely diagnosis is basal cell carcinoma due to the presence of telangiectasias (B). Telangiectasias are dilated blood vessels present at the top of a lesion and are a common characteristic of basal cell carcinoma lesions A Gen-Probe assay (A) is used to screen for - correct answer>>chlamydia and gonorrhea A potassium hydroxide prep (B) is used to test for the presence of - correct answer>>A potassium hydroxide prep (B) is used to test for the presence of Candida. A wet mount (D) is used to differentiate between various causes of - correct answer>>A wet mount (D) is used to differentiate between various causes of vaginitis, including trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is caused by damage to the center of the retina. It presents as blurred or a gradual loss of central vision. __ affects central vision rather than peripheral vision - correct answer>>Macular degeneration ____ is used in patients with CAP who have comorbidities, given its broader coverage. - correct answer>>Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) (B), in combination with a macrolide or doxycycline (Vibramycin), The choice of antibiotic for treatment for community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) patients without major comorbidities should be treated with - correct answer>>amoxicillin (A). valgus stress test to assess which structure within the knee - correct answer>>MCL The posterior drawer test evaluates the - correct answer>>posterior cruciate ligament tx severe allergy to penicillin has been diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia.
Primary amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation in someone who has not had a period by age - correct answer>> 15 In autosomal recessive inheritance, if both parents are carriers, there is a __chance that their child will be affected by the condition, while in autosomal dominant inheritance, if one parent has the condition, there is a ____ chance their child will inherit it as well - correct answer>>In autosomal recessive inheritance, if both parents are carriers, there is a 25% chance that their child will be affected by the condition, while in autosomal dominant inheritance, if one parent has the condition, there is a 50% chance their child will inherit it as well The best way to confirm a diagnosis of giant cell arteritis is by - correct answer>>taking a small sample (biopsy) of the temporal artery. Rocky Mountain fever lab dx - correct answer>>
