Download FNP (AANP) Study Guide Latest Exam 2025-2026 With Correct Verified Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
FNP (AANP) Study Guide Latest Exam 2025- 2026
With Correct Verified Answers
Microcytic Anemias - correct answer>>IDA, Thalassemia, Lead Toxicity Macrocytic Anemias - correct answer>>B12 Deficiency and Folate deificiency IDA - correct answer>>Microcytic, hypochromic Patient Presentation with microcytic anemia - correct answer>>Weakness, headache, irritability, fatigue, and exercise intolerance. Worsening of angina or dementia TIBC - correct answer>>Elevated with IDA Average lifespan of RBCs - correct answer>> 100 - 120 days RDW <15% - correct answer>>Longstanding anemia in that all cells are small RDW > 15% - correct answer>>New onset anemia; There is a mixture of normal and small RBCs Iron Rich foods - correct answer>>Organ meats, red meats, dried peas and beans, whole grains, and dark, green, leafy vegetables Iron Replacement - correct answer>> 150 - 200 mg/d Elemental Iron x4-6 months Beta Thalassemia - correct answer>>Avoid excessive iron consumption and will need genetic counseling Alpha Thalassemia - correct answer>>Asians, Mediterranean origin, avoid inappropriate exposure to iron, no therapy needed in minima and minor Liver - correct answer>>Where excess iron is stored Thalassemia Lab Results - correct answer>>Decrease hct, hgb, MCV, and MCH Normal RDW, serum iron, serum ferritin, and TIBC IDA Lab Results - correct answer>>Decrease in hgb, hct, MCV, MCH, serum iron, and serum ferritin Elevated RDW & TIBC
RBC lifespan in chronic disease - correct answer>> 60 - 90 days Macrocytosis Etiologies - correct answer>>ETOH abuse, substance abuse, celiac disease, IBS, pregnancy, lactation, certain medications, and myelodysplastic syndromes Which macrocytic anemia is characterized by neuro changes? - correct answer>>Vit B (Folate does not usually present with neuro changes) Thrombocytopenia - correct answer>>Platelet count less than 150, Thrombocytopenia Etiology - correct answer>>Drug induced, SLE, recent infection, idiopathic, antiphospholipid syndrome, or leukemia Agranular WBCs - correct answer>>Lymphocytes 20-25% Monocytes 3-8% Granular WBCs - correct answer>>Basophils 0.5-1% Neutrophils 60-70% Eosinophils 2-4% Eosinophils will increase with... - correct answer>>Allergic reactions and parasitic infections On a CBC think a viral infection when... - correct answer>>Poly's and Lumphs are numerically close On a CBC think bacterial infection when... - correct answer>>Poly's and Lymphs are numerically distant On a CBC, what will increase first with an infection? - correct answer>>Poly's and Lymphs Mono's on a CBC react within what amount of time in an infection? - correct answer>>24 hours What are bands? - correct answer>>Immature WBCs and when present represents a bad infection Common medications that can cause anemia - correct answer>>Metformin and PPIs
1:4 has sickle cell anemia Most common enzymatic disorder of red blood cells in humans - correct answer>>G6PD Glucose- 6 - phosphate dehydrogenase What do patients with G6PD need to avoid? - correct answer>>Sulfa drugs, aspirin, and fava beans because consumption will precipitate lysis of RBCs Primary cause of blindness in adults - correct answer>>Macular degeneration Second leading cause of blindness in adults - correct answer>>Cataracts Pterygium - correct answer>>Common non-cancerous growth on cornea and conjunctiva; can grow and cause blindness Pinguecula - correct answer>>Yellow, white deposit on the conjunctiva; asymptomatic Xanthasmas - correct answer>>Yellow plaque on the inner canthus; 50% of these patients have increased lipids Chalazion - correct answer>>Hard, non-tender nodule of the eyelid caused by inflammation of the Meibomian gland; treatment is laser Stye - correct answer>>Inflammation of the sebaceous glands at the base of the eyelashes; often tender Macular degeneration symptom - correct answer>>Loss of central vision over years; symptoms are scotoma and/or curving of straight lines Retinal veins vs retinal arteries - correct answer>>Arteries are narrower than veins; VEINS PULSATE Cataract - correct answer>>Opacity in the lens of the eye which decreases visual acuity; may not have red reflex present Most highly predictive symptom that leads to ARS - correct answer>>Facial pain, pressure that worsens with bending forward along with purple to nasal discharge Scotoma - correct answer>>Central blind spot; first sign of macular degeneration
Goals in treating ARS - correct answer>>Relieve symptoms Promote drainage Prevent complications Common etiologies for adult pharyngitis - correct answer>>Group A Strept Viruses Other bacteria (<5%) Non-infectious causes Centor criteria to determine if pt has GAS... - correct answer>>Cough, anterior cervical nodes, temp >100.4, tonsillar exudates or swelling, and most commonly found between the ages of 3-44yo What antibiotic group do you not use to treat ARS? - correct answer>>Macrolides Infectious mononucleosis - correct answer>>Viral infection caused by Epstein-Barr virus of the herpes family of viruses Characteristics of mono include.... - correct answer>>Fever Fatigue Pharyngitis Lymphadenopathy Epiglottitis - correct answer>>Infection of the epiglottis and surround tissues which can cause sudden and critical narrowing of the airway Symptoms of epiglottitis - correct answer>>Sore throat; fever; muffled voice; drooling; stridor; hoarseness; hyperextension of neck; "thumb sign" What meds are most commonly found to cause epistaxis? - correct answer>>Topical vasoconstrictor SUV as Afrin Allergic rhinitis - correct answer>>Inflammation of the mucous membranes of the nasal track Allergic rhinitis symptoms - correct answer>>Mucosal edema; clear discharge; sneezing; itching; nasal stuffiness First line management for allergic rhinits - correct answer>>Topical nasal steroids
Macule - correct answer>>Flat, nonpapable, discolored lesion; 1cm or smaller Comedo - correct answer>>Plugged, dilated pore Open - blackhead Closed - whitehead Nodule - correct answer>>Raised, firm, movable lesion with indistinct borders and deep palpable portion; less than or equal to 2cm Meds to avoid when pt is taking St John's wart? - correct answer>>Antiretrovirals Oral contraceptives Cyclosporines Substrate - correct answer>>Utilizes a specific enzymatic pathway Tumor - correct answer>>Large module that may be soft or firm Pustule - correct answer>>Raised lesion filled with pus, often in hair follicle or sweat pore Plaque - correct answer>>Solid, raised, flat-topped lesion with distinct borders; greater than 1cm Papule - correct answer>>Solid, raised lesion of varied color with distinct borders; less than 1cm Cyst - correct answer>>Palpable lesion with definite borders filled with liquid or semisolid material Atrophy - correct answer>>Thinning skin; may appear translucent Vesicle - correct answer>>Blister filled with clear fluid Fissure - correct answer>>Linear, wedge-shaped cracks extending into dermis Keloid - correct answer>>Healed lesion of hypertrophied connective tissue Lichenification - correct answer>>Thickening of skin with deep visible furrows Scales - correct answer>>Thin, flaking layers of epidermis
Striae - correct answer>>Fine pink or silver lines in areas where skin has been stretched CN II - correct answer>>Optic Snellen chart Visual acuity CN I - correct answer>>Olfactory Smell CN V - correct answer>>Trigeminal Sensation to face CN IV - correct answer>>Trochlear Superior Oblique Muscle ( LR6SO4) Desquamation - correct answer>>Peeing sheets of scale Cranial Nerves - correct answer>>Oh Oh Oh To Take A Family Vacation Go Vega And Hawaii "Floxacin" - correct answer>>Quinolones; broad spectrum abx; most serious side effects is tendon rupture Serum Ferritin - correct answer>>Amount of iron in storage "Terol" - correct answer>>Beta agonist; albuterol; side effects HA, anxiety, nervousness, increase HR "Tropium" - correct answer>>Anticholinergics; ipratropium; blocks acetylcholine; can't pee/see/spit/shit Scar - correct answer>>Healed lesion of connective tissue Reticulocyte Count - correct answer>>Ability of bone marrow to produce RBCs CN XII - correct answer>>Hypoglossal Motor fibers to the muscles of the tongue Telangiextasia - correct answer>>Collection of macular or raised, dilated capillaries
Immunocompromised HIV with cell counts < Ages <2 or > "Cytic" - correct answer>>Cell CN VII - correct answer>>Facial Face muscles and taste on the tongue CN VI - correct answer>>Abducens Lateral Rectus Muscle (LR6SO4) Erosion - correct answer>>Oozing or moist, depressed area with loss of superficial epidermis "Chromic" - correct answer>>Color Inhibitor - correct answer>>Blocks a specific enzymatic pathway; keeps substrate from exiting Inducer - correct answer>>Pushes the substrate out the exit pathway Excoriation - correct answer>>Abrasion or removal of epidermis scratch "Ide" - correct answer>>Thiazide diuretics "Azole" - correct answer>>PPI Pantoprazole Can cause vit b12 deficiency Crusts - correct answer>>Dried exudate or scab of varied color Ulcer - correct answer>>Deeper than erosion; open lesion extending into dermis Increased risks for antibiotic resistance - correct answer>><2yo or >65yo Daycare Abx within past month Hospitalization within past 5 days Immunocompromised
Primary skin lesion - correct answer>>Result from a diseas process; example zoster Secondary skin lesion - correct answer>>Lesions altered by outside manipulation, treatment, natural course of disease; crust that develops when vesicles rupture Excoriation - correct answer>>Usually linear, raised, often covered with crust; nickel allergy Lichenification - correct answer>>Skin thickening usually found over pruritic or friction areas; eczema Scales - correct answer>>Raised, superficial lesions that flake with ease; dandruff or psoriasis Erosion - correct answer>>Loss of epidermis layer; open vesicle Ulcer - correct answer>>Loss of epidermis and dermis; arterial ulcer or syphilitic chancre Fissure - correct answer>>Narrow, linear crack into epidermis exposing the dermis; athletes foot Linear - correct answer>>In streaks such as typical phytodermatitis cause by exposure to urushiol Clustered - correct answer>>Occurring in a group without pattern; example being HSV- 1 Dermatomal - correct answer>>Limited to boundaries of a single or multiple dermatomes; example zoster Scattered - correct answer>>Generalized over body without a specific pattern or distribution; rubella or roseola Clustered - correct answer>>Multiple lesions blending together; psoriasis vulgaris Annular - correct answer>>In a ring; bull's eye lesion seen in Luke's disease Actinic keratosis - correct answer>>Precancerous skin lesions; predominantly on sun- exposed skin; 1:100 becomes squamous cell carcinoma
Erysipelas - correct answer>>Infection of upper dermis, superficial lymphatics; most common pathogen S pyogenes Cellulitis - correct answer>>Infection of dermis and subcutaneous fat; most common pathogen is S pyogenes Nonbullous Impetigo - correct answer>>Erythematous macule that rapidly evolves into vesicle or pustule, ruptures, contents dry, leaving a crusted, honey colored exudate Bullous Impetigo - correct answer>>Bulla contains clear, yellow fluid that turns cloudy, dark yellow; ruptures easily, within 1-3 days leaving a rim of scale around red, moist base, followed by brown-lacquered or scalded appearance Treatment for mild non-purulent cellulitis, erysipelas, and Impetigo - correct answer>>Oral Penicillin VK Cephalexin Dicloxacillin Clindamycin Treatment for moderate non-purulent cellulitis, erysipelas, and Impetigo - correct answer>>IV penicillin, ceftriaxone clindamycin Cefazolin Treatment for mild purulent abscess, carbuncle, furuncle - correct answer>>I & D Treatment for moderate purulent abscess, carbuncle, furuncle - correct answer>>I & D C&S Empiric abx with Bactrim or doxycycline Treat MSSA with what? - correct answer>>Dicloxacillin Cephalexin Treat MRSA with what? - correct answer>>Bactrim
First degree burns - correct answer>>Superficial burns; treated with cold compresses, lotion, ointment, and Tylenol or Motrin Second degree burns - correct answer>>Superficial partial thickness or deep partial thickness Third degree burns - correct answer>>Full thickness (epithelium, dermis, underlying fat) Calculate percentage of total body surface area burned - correct answer>>Head and neck 9% Upper limbs 9% each Trunk 36% Lower limbs 18% each Genitalia 1% Palmar aspect of hand 1% Babies less than 6 months old sun safety - correct answer>>Avoid sun exposure Lightweight long pants and long-sleeves shirts Brimmed hats Minimal use of sunscreen that is >15 SPF Children >6 months to adulthood sun safety - correct answer>>Hat with brim Cover up Use SPF >15 protecting against both UVB & UVA Reapply sunscreen every 2 hours Superficial infections of the skin like Impetigo are most appropriately treated with what? - correct answer>>Topical antibacterials If superficial infection of the skin is extensive treat with what? - correct answer>>First generation cephalosporins Non-purulent cellulitis most appropriately treated with... - correct answer>>Cephalexin Purulent cellulitis most appropriately treated with... - correct answer>>Bactrim Clindamycin Doxycycline "Cyclovir" - correct answer>>Antiviral agent
Organisms common with bites - correct answer>>Pasturella (-) Staph (+) Strept (+) Honey colored crusts - correct answer>>Impetigo Topical antibiotic Herald patch - correct answer>>Pityriasis rosea Time Burrows - correct answer>>Scabies Permethrin Sandpaper textured rash - correct answer>>Strep Amoxicillin Pearly domed nodule - correct answer>>Basal Cell Carcinoma Removal Christmas tree pattern rash - correct answer>>Pityriasis rosea Time Bright, beefy red rash - correct answer>>Candida albicans Topical antifungal Silvery scales - correct answer>>Psoriasis Referral to derm Bull's eye lesion - correct answer>>Lyme disease Doxycycline Nits - correct answer>>Lice Permethrin Dermatomal rash - correct answer>>Herpes zoster Oral antivirals Butterfly rash - correct answer>>SLE referral to derm
Recurrent, highly pruritic rash and/on flexor and extensor surfaces - correct answer>>Eczema Topical steroids HSV infection of the finger - correct answer>>Herpatic whitlow Oral antiviral Tzanck preparation - correct answer>>Rapid test used to diagnose infections cause by the herpes virus; cells are taken from blisters fluid then smeared on a slide and stained with Wright's stain Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) - correct answer>>May be performed on skin scrapings, serum, or blood to confirm a heretic diagnosis Treatment for psoriasis - correct answer>>High potency steroid creams or systemic agents Direct Fluorescent Antibody (DFA) - correct answer>>Most common test employed for shingles diagnosis; it can be rapidly performed; offers results in about 90 minutes Treatment for nodulocystic acne - correct answer>>Isotretinoin (Accutane); disease is characterized by nodules and cysts Most common symptom of atopic dermatitis - correct answer>>Itching Most common initial serologic test for screening of Lyme disease - correct answer>>ELISA Herald patch is the hallmark sign of what? - correct answer>>Pityriasis rosea Common causes of clubbing of the fingers - correct answer>>COPD; cirrhosis; cystic fibrosis; pulmonary fibrosis; cyanotic heart disease Folliculitis - correct answer>>Superficial inflammation of hair follicles cause by bacteria Common antibiotics associated with photosensitivity - correct answer>>Tetracyclines Sulfa drugs Fluoroquinolones
Graves' disease etiology - correct answer>>Autoimmune in nature; multi system presentation including exophthalmus, tachycardia, proximal muscle weakness, goiter Toxic adenine etiology - correct answer>>Benign, metabolically active thyroid nodule Thyroiditis etiology - correct answer>>Viral or autoimmune, postpartum, drug-induced, often transient, usually accompanied by thyroid tenderness Normal limits for TSH - correct answer>>0.4-4.0mlU/L Goal for TSH lab results - correct answer>>1.2mlU/L Definition of TSH - correct answer>>Describes the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis; it reflects the anterior pituitary lobes ability to detect amount of circulating free thyroxine Free T4 normal limits - correct answer>> 10 - 27 pmol/L Thyroid peroxidase antibody (TPO Ab) normal limits - correct answer>>Less than 35 IU/mL Less important labs to perform to diagnose thyroid disorders - correct answer>>Total T Free T Total T Most important labs to do to diagnose thyroid disorders - correct answer>>TSH Free T TPO Ab How to calculate and the doses to initiate tx for hypothyroidism? - correct answer>>Use the ideal body wt in obese patients 1.6 mcg/kg/day adults 1.0 mcg/kg/day elderly 4.0 mcg/kg/day children What to do initially when a patient has hypothyroidism and pregnancy is confirmed? - correct answer>>Increase dose by at least 33% Education points on how to take levothyroxine appropriately - correct answer>>Take on an empty stomach with water at the same time every day
Should not be taken within 2 hours of cations, such as calcium, iron, aluminum, magnesium Who do you not prescribe a beta adregernic antagonist to? - correct answer>>Someone with asthma or COPD Beta 1 cells are located where - correct answer>>Heart Beta 2 cells are located where - correct answer>>Arms, legs, lungs Common drugs to treat hyperthyroid - correct answer>>PTU (propylthiouracil) Methimazole (Tapazole) Common side effect of medications used to treat hyperthyroidism - correct answer>>Acute hepatic failure warning Subclinical hypothyroidism Lab results - correct answer>>Elevated TSH with normal free T AACE guidelines on treatment of subclinical hypothyroidism - correct answer>>Goiter present Thyroid antibodies present Or if the pt is having symptoms infertility, pregnancy, or imminent pregnancy Fine tremor (Hypo/Hyper) - correct answer>>Hyper "Hung up" deep tendon reflex - correct answer>>Hypo Mental status change - correct answer>>Both hypo/hyper Thyroid enlargement - correct answer>>Both hypo/hyper Menorrhagia - correct answer>>Hypo Exopthalmos - correct answer>>Hyper Lid retraction - correct answer>>Hyper
