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FNP AANP prep – CARDIAC Latest Exam 2025 2026 With Correct Verified Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

Aortic area - correct answer>>-located at the right sternal border, 2nd ICS -systolic murmurs: aortic stenosis; physiologic flow murmurs Pulmonic area - correct answer>>-located at left sternal border, 2nd ICS -systolic murmurs: pulmonic stenosis & atrial septal defect Tricuspid area - correct answer>>-located at left sternal border, 4th ICS -holosystolic murmur: tricuspid regurgitation & ventricular septal defect -diastolic murmur: tricuspid stenosis ***valve that is most likely to be affected by endocarditis Mitral area - correct answer>>-located at left midclavicular, 5th ICS -holosystolic murmur: mitral regurgitation -systolic murmur: mitral valve prolapse -diastolic murmur: mitral stenosis Atrioventricular valves - correct answer>>-valves that connect the atrium to the ventricles -tricuspid & mitral Semilunar valves - correct answer>>-valves that connect the ventricles to the outflow vessels -aortic & pulmonic valves

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FNP AANP prep CARDIAC Latest Exam 2025-
2026 With Correct Verified Questions and
Answers
Aortic area - correct answer>>-located at the right sternal border, 2nd ICS
-systolic murmurs: aortic stenosis; physiologic flow murmurs
Pulmonic area - correct answer>>-located at left sternal border, 2nd ICS
-systolic murmurs: pulmonic stenosis & atrial septal defect
Tricuspid area - correct answer>>-located at left sternal border, 4th ICS
-holosystolic murmur: tricuspid regurgitation & ventricular septal defect
-diastolic murmur: tricuspid stenosis
***valve that is most likely to be affected by endocarditis
Mitral area - correct answer>>-located at left midclavicular, 5th ICS
-holosystolic murmur: mitral regurgitation
-systolic murmur: mitral valve prolapse
-diastolic murmur: mitral stenosis
Atrioventricular valves - correct answer>>-valves that connect the atrium to the
ventricles
-tricuspid & mitral
Semilunar valves - correct answer>>-valves that connect the ventricles to the outflow
vessels
-aortic & pulmonic valves
S1 - correct answer>>-systole
-"lub"
-closure of AV valves (mitral & tricuspid)
-heart actively pumping blood (start of systole)
***heard loudest at apex
S2 - correct answer>>-diastole
-"dub"
-closure of semilunar valves (aortic & pulmonic)
-heart rests as blood fills into ventricles
-split S2: NORMAL during inspiration; ABNORMAL during expiration
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Download FNP AANP prep – CARDIAC Latest Exam 2025 2026 With Correct Verified Questions and Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

FNP AANP prep – CARDIAC Latest Exam 2025-

2026 With Correct Verified Questions and

Answers

Aortic area - correct answer>>-located at the right sternal border, 2nd ICS

  • systolic murmurs: aortic stenosis; physiologic flow murmurs Pulmonic area - correct answer>>-located at left sternal border, 2nd ICS
  • systolic murmurs: pulmonic stenosis & atrial septal defect Tricuspid area - correct answer>>-located at left sternal border, 4th ICS
  • holosystolic murmur: tricuspid regurgitation & ventricular septal defect
  • diastolic murmur: tricuspid stenosis ***valve that is most likely to be affected by endocarditis Mitral area - correct answer>>-located at left midclavicular, 5th ICS
  • holosystolic murmur: mitral regurgitation
  • systolic murmur: mitral valve prolapse
  • diastolic murmur: mitral stenosis Atrioventricular valves - correct answer>>-valves that connect the atrium to the ventricles
  • tricuspid & mitral Semilunar valves - correct answer>>-valves that connect the ventricles to the outflow vessels
  • aortic & pulmonic valves S1 - correct answer>>-systole
  • "lub"
  • closure of AV valves (mitral & tricuspid)
  • heart actively pumping blood (start of systole) ***heard loudest at apex S2 - correct answer>>-diastole
  • "dub"
  • closure of semilunar valves (aortic & pulmonic)
  • heart rests as blood fills into ventricles
  • split S2: NORMAL during inspiration; ABNORMAL during expiration

***listen for split S2 at base Split S2 - correct answer>>-NORMAL during inspiration, ABNORMAL during expiration

  • listen for this sound at BASE S3 - correct answer>>-gallop
  • low-frequency heart sound heard at end diastole
  • commonly heard in heart failure or pregnancy
  • sounds like "ken-tuc-ky" S4 - correct answer>>-"atrial kick"
  • low-frequency heart sound hear right before systole
  • commonly causes uncontrolled hypertension or left ventricular hypertrophy
  • sounds like "ten-nes-see" ***benign finding in the elderly! Systolic murmurs - correct answer>>-"MR. PASS MVP"
  • Mitral Regurgitation: radiates to the axillae
  • Physiological aortic stenosis: radiates to the neck
  • Systolic: systolic murmurs radiate!!!
  • Mitral valve prolapse: often described as a "click" often associated with Marfan's syndrome
  • test tip: dental prophylaxis not necessary for patients with mitral valve prolapse Diastolic murmurs - correct answer>>-"ARMS DEALER"
  • Aortic regurgitation
  • Mitral stenosis
  • Diastolic = doom! Must be referred to cardiology! Grade 1 murmur - correct answer>>-slightest possible murmur
  • very faint, not heard in all positions
  • NO THRILL (frequently overlooked)
  • non-palpable murmur, only audible Grade 2 murmur - correct answer>>-slight & soft murmur
  • heard in all positions
  • NO THRILL
  • immediately audible, but faint
  • non-palpable murmur, only audible
  • cardio-protective
  • renal-protective for diabetic patients
  • can cause angioedema, switch to an ARB if this happens ARB (angiotensin receptor blockers) - correct answer>>-suffix: "—sartan"
  • antagonizes action of aldosterone
  • labs: BUN, creatinine & K+
  • hyperkalemia risk!
  • cardio-protective
  • renal-protective for diabetic patients
  • medication class that patients should be switched to if they develop angioedema on ACE-inhibitor Thiazide diuretics - correct answer>>-hydrochlorothiazide (hctz) & chlorthalidone
  • may increase "TUG": Triglycerides, Uric acid, Glucose...avoid in patients with cholesterolemia, gout & diabetes
  • preferred in osteoporosis & African American patients Calcium channel blockers (CCBs) - correct answer>>-amlodipine, diltiazem, verapamil
  • suffix: "—pine"
  • side effects: ankle edema, headaches
  • preferred in patients >65 (stiff arteries)
  • preferred in African American patients
  • avoid in patients with GERD! Weakens gastric sphincter Hypertension in pregnancy - medications to use - correct answer>>-"New lil mama"... 3 BP meds commonly given in pregnancy...
  • nifedipine, labetalol, methyldopa Hypertension in pregnancy - contraindicated medications - correct answer>>-ACE inhibitors
  • ARBs
  • statins
  • DMARDs (methotrexate)
  • renin antagonists (aliskren) < 200 - correct answer>>What is normal total cholesterol? 40 - 60 - correct answer>>What is normal HDL?

< 100 - correct answer>>What is normal LDL? < 150 - correct answer>>What is normal triglycerides?

7.5% - correct answer>>What is the ASCVD cutoff to start meds? Lipid panel - correct answer>>-check lipid panels every 5 years unless patient has increased risk factors: high BMI, family hx of MI

  • always start with lifestyle modifications before medication LDL - correct answer>>-makes up most of your body's cholesterol
  • high levels of this raise your risk for heart disease and stroke HLD - correct answer>>-absorbs cholesterol and returns to the liver
  • high levels of this lowers your risk for heart disease and stroke 1 - hx of MI 2 - LDL >190 w/ co-morbidities 3 - adults 40-75 yo w/ DM 4 - adults 40-75 yo w/ ASCVD >7.5% - correct answer>>If any of these 4 apply, consider starting a statin... what are these 4 things? HMG-COA reductase inhibitors - correct answer>>-high intensity statins
  • first line treatment
  • mechanism of action: works to reduce LDL
  • criteria when considering a high-intensity statins... —if LDL >190 w/ other co-morbidities (CAD, DM, CKD) or if >65 yo
  • strongest statins... —1. Rosuvastatin (crestor) 20-40 mg/daily —2. Atorvastatin (Lipitor) 40-80 mg/daily
  • 2 major side effects: rhabdomyolysis and drug-induced hepatitis... —both may present with dark urine, so know your key findings!
  • TEST TIP: check baseline CK, LFTs & HgbA1C Rhabdomyolysis - correct answer>>-major side effect of statins
  • key finding: muscle pains & dark urine
  • labs: elevated CK (5x normal!)
  • risks: acute renal failure Drug-induced hepatitis - correct answer>>-major side effects of statins
  • highest risk for patients with status asthmaticus and cardiac tamponade
  1. Inspiration/bleeding increases intrathoracic pressure
  2. Heart compression = poor contraction power!
  3. Blood pressure drops! (Think HR x SV = CO) Metabolic syndrome - correct answer>>-cluster of high risk symptoms that if occurred together, can increase your risk of heart disease, stroke and diabetes
  • remember... "PHATS" P: pressure (BP >130/85) H: HLD is low (< 40 in men and <50 in women) A: abdominal girth (>40in in men and >35in in women) T: triglycerides (>150) S: sugars (fasting glucose >100) *need 3 or more for confirmatory diagnosis P: pressure...BP >130/ H: HDL is low... <40 in men & <50 in women A: abdominal girth... >40in in men & >35in in women T: triglycerides (>150) S: sugars...fasting glucose > *need 3 to confirm diagnosis of metabolic syndrome - correct answer>>What are the cluster of high risk symptoms that contribute to this syndrome? How many do you need to diagnose syndrome? What is this syndrome? Atrial fibrillation - correct answer>>-irregular heart rate with no p waves
  • normal cardiac conduction: sinoatrial (SA) node —> atrioventricular (AV) node —> bundle of his —> purkinje fibers
  • pathophysiology review: atrial arrhythmias have impulse origins somewhere other than the sinoatrial (SA) node
  • abnormal atrial depolarization with normal ventricular depolarization
  • multiple rogue cells firing causing "chaos in the atrium" —AV node bombarded by rapid atrial impulses —randomly allows some of the to reach the ventricles
  • increased clot and stroke risk due to ineffective pumping and blood pooling Controlled a fib - correct answer>>-HR < 100 but in a fib
  • some patients live in this rhythm baseline Uncontrolled a fib - correct answer>>-HR > 100 but in a fib
  • a fib w/ rapid ventricular response (RVR)

A fib - rate-control - correct answer>>-beta blockers (metoprolol)

  • calcium channel blockers (diltiazem/digoxin) Digoxin toxicity - correct answer>>-GI upset and yellow/green vision changes A fib - rhythm-control - correct answer>>-antiarrthmics (amiodarone) A fib - anticoagulation - correct answer>>-warfarin
  • assess CHADS-VASC score: stroke risk assessment tool used for a fib C - congestive heart failure (+1) H - hypertension (+1) A - age 75 years or older (+2) D - diabetes mellitus (+1) S - previous stroke, transient ischemic attack or thromboembolism (+2) V - vascular disease (+1) A - age 65-74 (+1) S - sex category (female) (+1) - correct answer>>-CHADS-VASC stroke risk assessment tool used for a fib
  • score of 0-1 indicates low risk or no risk of stroke (lone a fib), aspirin 81 or 325mg recommended
  • score of 1-2 indicates intermediate risk, an oral anticoagulant (warfarin) should be recommended Amiodarone - correct answer>>-rhythm-control med for a fib
  • prevents conduction of unwanted cardiac impulses
  • assess chest X-ray & pulmonary function tests (PFTs) prior to initiation
  • long-term use can lead to...
  1. Hypothyroidism
  2. Pulmonary toxicity
  3. Optic neuropathy Warfarin - correct answer>>-normal INR = 1
  • goal INR = 2- 3
  • treatment: —INR <2: increase dose —INR 2-9: hold and drop dose —INR >10 w/ no bleeding: give PO vitamin K —INR >10 w/ bleeding: give IV vitamin K