Download Flight Paramedic Certification Exam With Latest Updated Solutions 2024. and more Exams Medicine in PDF only on Docsity!
Flight Paramedic Certification Exam With
Latest Updated Solutions 2024
Agent Aspirin (ASA) - correct answer .Antidote Bicarb Agent Benzodiazepines - correct answer .Antidote Flumazenil (Romazicon) Agent Beta Blockers - correct answer Antidote Glucagon Agent Calcium Channel Blockers - correct answer.Antidote Calcium Gluconate Agent Cocaine - correct answer .Antidote Benzodiazepines Agent Pit Vipers - correct answer .Antidote CroFab, FabAV Agent Cyanide - correct answer .Antidote Amyl Nitrate (inhaled), Sodium Nitrate (IV), Sodium Thiosulfate (IV) Agent Digitalis - correct answer .Antidote Digibind, Digoxin Fab
Agent Dilantin - correct answer.Antidote Supportive care Agent Ethylene Glycol (Anti-Freeze) - correct answer.Antidote IV Ethanol, Fomepizole (Antizol) Agent Hydrocarbons - correct answer.Antidote Intubate Agent Isoniazid (INH) - correct answer.Antidote Pyridoxine Agent Iron - correct answer.Antidote Defroxamine Agent Methanol - correct answer.Antidote IV Ethanol Agent Opiods - correct answer.Antidote Naloxone (Narcan) Agent Organophosphates - correct answer.Antidote Atropine, 2 Pam Chloride Agent Tricyclic Antidepressants - correct answer.Antidote Bicarb Agent Tylenol - correct answer.Antidote Mucomyst, Acetadote Pediatric age range Neonate - correct answer.Birth to 28 days Pediatric age range Infant - correct answer.28 days to 1 year
Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel value K+ (potassium) - correct answer.3.5 - 5 mEq/L Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel value Cl- (chloride) - correct answer.95-105 mEq/L Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel value CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) - correct answer.22-26 mEq/L Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel value BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) - correct answer.6-24 mg/dL Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel value Cr (creatinine) - correct answer..7-1.4 mg/dL Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel value Glucose - correct answer.80-120 mg/dL Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Sodium is... - correct answer.The primary extracellular cation, helps nerves and muscles interact Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Potassium is... - correct answer.The primary intracellular cation, responsible for cell excitability, resting membrane potential (MOST DANGEROUS ABNORMALITY) Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Chloride is... - correct answer.An extracellular cation, maintains osmotic pressure, helps stomach produce hydrochloric acid Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Carbon Dioxide is... - correct answer.Important for helping maintain the acid-base balance Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Blood Urea Nitrogen... - correct answer.Helps provide a picture of renal clearance Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Creatinine... - correct answer.Help provide a picture of renal clearance Chem 7 Basic Metabolic Panel Glucose... - correct answer.Shows how much glucose is circulating in the blood Gas Laws Boyle's Law Equation - correct answer.P1 x V1 = P2 x V
Gas Laws Boyle's Law Definition - correct answer.The pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to the volume of a gas at a constant temperature Gas Laws Dalton's Law Definition - correct answer.The total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of the partial pressures of all the gases in the mixture Gas Laws Charle's Law Equation - correct answer.V1 x T2 = V2 x T Gas Laws Charle's Law Definition - correct answer.At a constant pressure, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas Gas Laws Gay-Lussac's Law Equation - correct answer.P1 x T2 = P2 x T Gas Laws Gay-Lussac's Law Definition - correct answer.Directly proportional relationship between temperature and pressure DCS is related to what gas law? - correct answer.Henry's Law DCS Type 1 S/S, Tx - correct answer.Pain Itching Swelling Recompression on TT DCS Type 2 S/S, Tx - correct answer.Any neurologic sign Pain in two or more joint Pain the t-shirt or shorts area Hypovolemic Shock Recompression on TT Cutis Marmorata S/S, Tx - correct answer.Mottled Skin Recompression on TT AGE is due to what gas law? - correct answer.Boyle's Law
Types of hypoxia Hypoxic - correct answer.Not enough oxygen in the air altitude, deficiency in alveolar O2 exchange, pneumothorax Types of hypoxia Stagnant - correct answer.Reduced cardiac output High G forces, cardiogenic shock Stages of hypoxia - correct answer.Indifferent - some loss of night vision Compensatory - ⇧HR, vent, slowed judgement Disturbance - drunk Critical - death Stressors of flight Self imposed - correct answer.Dehydration Exhaustion Alcohol Tobacco Hypoglycemia Stressors of flight Inherent - correct answer.Thermal Changes ⇩ Humidity Gravitational forces Fatigue ⇩ Partial pressure of O Barometric pressure change Noise Vibration G Forces - Gx Direction of Force Toleration Example - correct answer.Anterior/Posterior Best tolerated Accelerating/decelerating in your car G Forces - Gz Direction Toleration Example - correct answer.Vertical Falling from a roof and landing on your feet G Forces - Gy Direction
Toleration Example - correct answer.Lateral Least tolerated Being T-Boned in a car wreck Altitude Effects Every 1,000 ft increase causes temp to drop... - correct answer.2° Celcius Altitude Effects Barondontalgia - correct answer.Occurs on ascent Air trapped in filling expands (Boyle's Law) Altitude Effects Barotitis - correct answer.Occurs on descent Air trapped in middle ear unable equalize due to blocked Eustachian Tube Altitude Effects Barosinusitis - correct answer.Occurs both ascent and descent Air blocked in sinuses unable to equalize CAMTS stands for... - correct answer.Commission for the Accreditation of Medical Transport Systems CAMTS Air Transport Team Members - correct answer.Flight nurse Flight Paramedic Respiratory Therapist Flight Physician CAMTS Air Medical Resources Management - correct answer.Distributes workload The operational practice of involving ALL members of the flight team in the mission planning, decision making, and mission safety Crew Resource Management in the military CAMTS Critical phases of flight - correct answer.Take off Landing (short final) Refueling Taxi (ground or air) CAMTS Distance you must be able to pull your flight suit away from your body - correct answer.1/4" CAMTS
Night w/ NVGs or TAWS - correct answer.800' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Non mountainous - Cross Country Day - correct answer.800' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Non mountainous - Cross Country Night w/ NVGs or TAWS - correct answer.1000' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Mountainous - Local Day - correct answer.800' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Mountainous - Local Night w/ NVGs or TAWS - correct answer.1000' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Mountainous - Cross Country Day - correct answer.1000' ceiling 3 mile visibility CAMTS Weather minimums Mountainous - Cross Country Night w/ NVGs or TAWS - correct answer.1000' ceiling 5 mile visibility CAMTS If bad weather is encountered in flight... - correct answer.divert to the nearest facility CAMTS #1 cause of crash... - correct answer.Bad weather CAMTS
#2 cause of crash... - correct answer.Night flight Diagnostic Signs S3 - correct answer.Congestive Heart Failure Diagnostic Signs S4 - correct answer.Myocardial Infarction Diagnostic Signs Turtles Sign - correct answer.Shoulder dystocia When the fetus crowns and then goes back in Diagnostic Signs McRobert's Maneuver - correct answer.Shoulder dystocia Hyperflex the mother's legs to abdomen Diagnostic Signs Mauriceau's Maneuver - correct answer.Breech delivery A method of delivering the head in an assisted breech delivery in which the infant's body is supported by the right forearm while traction is made upon the shoulders by the left hand. Diagnostic Signs Steeple Sign - correct answer.Croup The radiologic image of subglottic narrowing from edema, suggestive of a steeple Diagnostic Signs Waddell's Triad - correct answer.Pediatric hit by car Femur fracture Head injury Intra-abdominal or intra-thoracic injury Diagnostic Signs Cushing's Triad - correct answer.ICP Irregular breathing Widening pulse pressures Bradycardia Diagnostic Signs Babinski's Sign - correct answer.Spinal cord injury The big toes goes up and the toes fan out when the sole of the foot is firmly stroked
Diagnostic Signs Ballance's Sign - correct answer.Coagulated blood in the abdomen A dull percussion resonance sound heard on the right flank of a patient lying in the left decubitus position, an indication of a ruptured spleen. The sound is caused by an accumulation of liquid blood on the right side and coagulated blood on the left. Diagnostic Signs Coopernail's Sign - correct answer.Pelvic fracture Bruising of the skin of the perineum, scrotum, or labia. Diagnostic Signs Kussmaul's Sign - correct answer.Chest trauma JVD on inspiration Diagnostic Signs Beck's Triad - correct answer.Cardiac Tamponade Low arterial blood pressure Distended neck veins Muffled heart tones Diagnostic Signs Hamman's Crunch - correct answer.Mediastinal Emphysema Crunching, raspy sound that is synchronous with the heart beat Diagnostic Signs Murphy's Sign - correct answer.Cholecystitis Pain on taking a deep breath when the examiner's fingers are on the approximate location of the gallbladder. Diagnostic Signs McBurney's Sign - correct answer.Appendicitis Palpation of the McBurney's point, midway between the umbilicus and the anterior iliac crest in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen CAMTS Visual Flight Rules (VFR) means... - correct answer.You can only fly in weather conditions that you can where you are flying
CAMTS
Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) means... - correct answer.The weather conditions do not allow for safe flight by sight alone and the pilot must be able to use their instruments. CAMTS Inadvertent Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IIMC) means... - correct answer.The pilot started flying in VFR and the weather changed unexpectedly requiring the pilot to fly by instrument. CAMTS Hasty or Unsecured helicopter landing zones - correct answer.Must have coms with the ground generally 100' x 100' 1 approach and departure heading 2 passes required prior to landing During hours of limited visibility have 2 vehicles cross their headlights to mark HLZ CAMTS Permanent helicopter landing zones - correct answer.2 approach and departure headings Perimeter lighting Landing beacon Windsock CAMTS In-flight emergencies Land immediately - correct answer.Engine failure Fire CAMTS In-flight emergencies Land ASAP - correct answer.Low transmission pressure Chip light CAMTS In-flight emergencies Land as soon as practical - correct answer.go to the closest convenient place to "check this thing out" CAMTS Crash Procedures Pre-crash sequence - correct answer.Lay the patient flat Turn off the oxygen Assume crash position CAMTS
Evaluate 3- 3 - 2 Mallampati (I-IV) Obstructions Neck mobility Mallampati I - correct answer.Soft palate, uvula, anterior/posterior tonsillar pillars visible Mallampati II - correct answer.Tonsillar pillars hidden by tongue Mallampati III - correct answer.Only the base of the uvula can be seen Mallampati IV - correct answer.Uvula can not be seen Macintosh blade interacts with... - correct answer.Lifts the vallecula Miller blade interacts with... - correct answer.Lifts the epiglottis Sellick's Maneuver is... - correct answer.Direct downward pressure on the thyroid cartilage BURP Maneuver is... - correct answer.Backward Upward Rightward Pressure Failed airway algorithm - correct answer.Patient requires a secured airway 3 attempts of direct laryngoscopy unsuccessful Ventilate the patient by BVM Unable to ventilate/oxygenate SaO2>90% Cricothyroidotomy indicated Chest X-ray for placement of ETT should place the tip at... - correct answer.2-3 cm above the carina T2 T3 vertebrae The distal cuff of an ETT should be inflated to _________ to _____________ - correct answer.20-30 mmHg, prevent mucosal tissue damage 7 Ps of intubation - correct answer.Preparation Preoxygenate Pretreatment Paralysis with induction Protect and position Placement with proof Post intubation management
LOAD (RSI Pretreatment) - correct answer.Lidocaine Opiates Atropine for infants Defasiculating Dose NMB Succinylcholine - correct answer.Depolarizing Neuromuscular Blocking Agent Causes fasiculations Requires refrigeration NMB Succinylcholine Dose Onset Duration - correct answer.1-2 mg/kg 1 - 2 min onset 4 - 6 min duration NMB Succinylcholine Contraindications - correct answer.Crush injuries Eye injuries Narrow angle glaucoma History of malignant hyperthermia Burns > 24 hrs Hyperkalemia Any nervous system disorder Malignant hyperthermia S/S Tx - correct answer.Masseter spasm/trismus Sustained tetanic muscle contractions Rapid increase in temp Increased ETCO Tachycardia Mixed acidosis Dantrolene Sodium (Dantrium) 3.0 mg/kg Do not give calcium channel blockers NMB Vecuronium (Norcuron) - correct answer.Non-depolarizing NMB Does not cause fasiculations Does not need to be refrigerated
Propofol (Diprovan) Dose Onset Duration Notes - correct answer.1.5 mg/kg 15 - 45 seconds 5 - 10 mins Use lowest possible dose ⇩ cerebral perfusion pressure and mean arterial pressure Do not use in pts with head injuries or shock Analgesic Ketamine (Ketalar) Dose Onset Duration Notes - correct answer.1 mg/kg IV 1.5 mg/kg IM 45 - 60 seconds 11 - 17 mins Increases secretions Bronchodilator Hallucinations Can be given IO Analgesic Morphine Dose Onset Duration Notes - correct answer.2 mg IV/IM/IO for mild pain 5 mg IV/IM/IO for moderate pain Onset within mins Last 2-3 hours Respiratory depression Requires antiemetic Naloxone for reversal Analgesic Fentanyl Dose Onset Duration
Notes - correct answer.50-100 mg IV 1 - 2 mins 45 - 60 mins Avoid ⇧ ICP Chest wall rigidity Requires antiemetic Naloxone for reversal Vt Tidal Volume is... - correct answer.The amount of air the patient breathes in a normal breath IRV Inspiratory Reserve Volume is... - correct answer.The amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled in addition to normal tidal volume ERV Expiratory Reserve Volume is... - correct answer.The amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled in addition to normal tidal volume VC Vital Capacity - correct answer.IRV + Vt + ERV = VC RV Residual Volume - correct answer.The amount of air left in the respiratory tract following forceful exhalation TLC Total Lung Capacity - correct answer.IRV + Vt + ERV + RV = TLC Respiratory dead space - correct answer.The surfaces of the airway that are not involved in gas exchange Central chemoreceptors are located in the________ and are driven by ________ - correct answer.Medulla/Pons, CO2 and H+ levels Peripheral chemoreceptors are located in the _______ and are driven by ________ - correct answer.Aortic arch/carotid bodies, O2, CO2, H+ Hypercarbic respiratory failure is... Evidenced by... Treated by... - correct answer.Inability to remove CO Respiratory acidosis ⇧ Vt, then rate
