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EMT FISDAP FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS.
A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident. - Correct answer 72 Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? - Correct answer AED As an EMT, it is important to remember that the signs and symptoms of cumulative stress: - Correct answer may not be present or obvious at all times The patient care report (PCR) ensures: - Correct answer continuity of care Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS? A. A 53-year-old patient who is given glucagon for significant hypoglycemia Incorrect B. A 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED) Correct C. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a multilumen device Incorrect D. A 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle Incorrect - Correct answer B. A 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED) A patient's refusal for EMS treatment and/or transport must be: - Correct answer an informed refusal
Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? - Correct answer deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment? - Correct answer A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT While assisting an advanced life support (ALS) ambulance crew, you are accidentally stuck with an IV needle. You should: - Correct answer report the incident to your supervisor after the call A positive TB skin test indicates that: - Correct answer. You have been exposed to the disease. Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT: - Correct answer. Elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: - Correct answer. Brief and easily understood. F an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report: - Correct answer it was not performed in the eyes of the law. Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: - Correct answer not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons When you begin an oral report, you should state the patient's age, sex, and: - Correct answer chief complaint.
In which of the following situations does the EMT NOT have a legal duty to act? Choose one answer. A. A response to an injured patient while off duty B. A response to a motor vehicle crash while off duty C. Local policy requires you to assist in any emergency. D. A response to the residence of a patient who fell - Correct answer a response to a motor vehicle crash while off duty The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: - Correct answer gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to: - Correct answer careless handling of sharps. When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest, and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located, you should:
- Correct answer begin resuscitation at once. After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the PCR. When documenting the patient's last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should: - Correct answer draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it. What section of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? - Correct answer protecting patient privacy Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, EXCEPT: Important medical history not previously given. B. The set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene.
C. The chief complaint or mechanism of injury. D. The patient's response to treatment you provided. - Correct answer the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: A. Maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. B. Using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands. C. Positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient. D. Withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital.
- Correct answer maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, EXCEPT: Choose one answer. A. Acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible. B. Holding the microphone about 2" to 3" from your mouth. C. Using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. D. Speaking in a clear, calm, monotone voice. - Correct answer C. Using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis? Choose one answer. A. Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness. B. The federal government requires that changes be made to existing emergency care protocols at least every 5 years. C. EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis. D. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. - Correct answer D. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed.
Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? Choose one answer. A. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin B. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin C. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor D. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis - Correct answer 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin Correct Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness? Choose one answer. A. Asking questions related to the chief complaint B. Trending of the patient's vital signs over time C. Focusing solely on how the call is dispatched D. Refraining from asking open-ended questions - Correct answer A. Asking questions related to the chief complaint The diaphragm functions as an involuntary muscle when a person: - Correct answer sleeps The leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the: - Correct answer epiglottis. The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies:
- Correct answer addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process. An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: - Correct answer your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.
Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the: Choose one answer. A. Trachea. B. Alveoli. C. Epiglottis. D. Bronchioles. - Correct answer C. Epiglottis. The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected: - Correct answer cervical spine injuries Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: - Correct answer incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood. 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: - Correct answer remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. Inhalation occurs when the - Correct answer diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: - Correct answer shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: Choose one answer. A. A respiratory infection. B. An overdose of aspirin. C. High blood glucose levels.
The two processes that occur during respiration are - Correct answer inspiration and expiration. Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is MOST correct? Choose one answer. A. Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive. B. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive. C. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals. D. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels. - Correct answer The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels. In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: - Correct answer. Oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct? Choose one answer. A. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. B. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected. C. Studies have shown that less than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers. D. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick. - Correct answer MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics.
Hypoxia is MOST accurately defined as: - Correct answer inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells. Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should - Correct answer attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient Which of the following conditions would LEAST likely result in hypoxia? A. Pleural effusion B. Pulmonary edema C. Prolonged seizures D. Severe anxiety - Correct answer D. Severe anxiety Syphilis is a: - Correct answer bloodborne disease that can successfully be treated with penicillin Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock? Choose one answer. A. Hypotension B. Wheezing C. Pallor D. Dizziness - Correct answer wheezing Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? Choose one answer. A. Substance abuse B. Schizophrenia C. Depression D. Alzheimer's disease - Correct answer A. Substance abuse
B. Anxiety Incorrect C. Restlessness D. Cyanosis - Correct answer cyanosis An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Choose one answer. A. The invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs. B. A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. C. A medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body. D. Any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. - Correct answer C. A medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body. Correct Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: - Correct answer cardiogenic shock Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by - Correct answer repeating the primary assessment An organ or tissue may be better to resis damage from hypperfusion if the - Correct answer body temperature is consistently less than 98.6F (37.0) The electrical impulse by the heart originates in the - Correct answer sinoatrial node(sa) What is true about blood clotting? - Correct answer a person taking aspirin will expierence slower blood clotting Classic symptoms and signs of hypoglycemia include - Correct answer cool, clammy, weak, tachycardia, rapid respirations
Glucose is a trade name for - Correct answer oral glucose What organs lie in the retroperitoneal space? - Correct answer gallbladder Common causes of psychotic behavior include the following, except - Correct answer Alzheimers dieses Significant vital signs changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than___of his or her blood - Correct answer 20% What is a fact of hemophilia's? - Correct answer may bleed spontaneously As red blood cells begin to clumb together to form a clot,____reinforces the clumped red blood cells - Correct answer fibrinogen When assessing arm movement of a suspected stroke, you should - Correct answer expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patients side Hypoperfusion is another name for - Correct answer shock Activated charcoal administration is contraindicated in patients who have ingested - Correct answer acids or alkalies Anaphylaxis is mod accurately defines as an - Correct answer extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems What is not an assessment parameter included in the cincinati prehospital stroke scale - Correct answer memory
Because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following sting - Correct answer it can continue to inject venom up to 20 mins Your unit is dispatched to the county jail for an inmate. On arrival, you find the patient a 33 year old male lying supine in a jail cell. He is responsive to painful stimuli only has a slow, shallow respirations. You should be most concerned that this patient - Correct answer may vomit and aspirate Air bags are designed to - Correct answer decrease the severity of deceleration injuries Functions of the liver include - Correct answer production of substances necessary for blood clotting The normal blood glucose level as measured by a glucometer is between - Correct answer 80 and 120 mg/dl Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when
- Correct answer wheezing and hypotension are present Sudden death following AMI is most often caused by - Correct answer ventricular fibirillation The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the - Correct answer carotid arteries The purpose of defibrillation - Correct answer stop the chaotic,disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells Your paramedic partne administers atropine to a 49 year old male with bradycardia. Which of the following side effects would you expect the patient to have - Correct answer dry mucus membrane
What organ would most likely bleed profusely if injured? - Correct answer liver In contrast to level 3 trauma center, a level 1 trauma center - Correct answer must have general surgeons on call 24/ You respond to a 55 year old residence, female with a possible allergic reaction to peanuts that she ate approx 30 mins ago. The patient is conscious and alert but has diffuse uticaria and the feeling that she has a lump in her throat. As your partner applied oxygen. You should - Correct answer ask her if she has prescribed epi Esophageal varicose most commonly occur in patients - Correct answer drink a lot of alcohol Urticaria is the medical term for - Correct answer hives A patient with an altered mental status - Correct answer is not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused Hypoglycemic crisis tends to develop more often and severely in children - Correct answer they do not always eat correctly and on schedule You arrive at the scene of a 33 year old woman who i experiencing a generalized seizure. She has a small amount of vomiyus draining from the side of her mouth. After protecting her from further injury. You should - Correct answer maintain her airway, suction her airway, insert nasopharyngerl airway. Admin high flow o An important aspect in the treatment of a patient with severe abdominal pain is to - Correct answer provide emotional support to the hospital
You arrive at the home of a 50 year old female with severe epitaxis, as you treat her it is most important to recall - Correct answer the patient is at risk for vomitting and aspiration Two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are - Correct answer falls and motor vehicle collisions Acute coronary syndrome is a term to describe - Correct answer a group of symptoms that are cause myocardial ischemia Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to - Correct answer the right atrium What organ can tolerate inadequate profusion for up to 2 hours - Correct answer skeletal muscle If direct pressure with a sterile fails immediately to stop severe bleeding you should apply - Correct answer a tourniquet proximal to injury When assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavoir an emt should - Correct answer consider acute medical illness may be causing the patients behavior What is the major difference between AMI and angina pectoris - Correct answer anginal pain typically subsides with rest Patients with acute abdominal pain should not be given anything to drink because - Correct answer substances in the stomach increase risk for aspiration Most patients with the abdominal pain prefer to - Correct answer lie on side with knees drawn in
After applying pressure dressing to a laceration on a patients arm, you notice the blood is beginning to saturate, you should - Correct answer place additional dressings Prior to assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitrogen, the emt must - Correct answer obtain authorization by medical control Assessment of a patient with hypoglycemia will most likely reveal
- Correct answer combativeness When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should - Correct answer be direct and clearly state your intentions What sound indicated swelling of the upper airway - Correct answer stridor Diabetes is most accurately defined as a - Correct answer disorder of carbohydrate metabolism Hypovolemic shock occurs when - Correct answer the body can't compensate for rapid blood loss The effects of epinheprine are typically within___following administration - Correct answer 1 minute What finding is the least suggestive of the presence of high energy trauma - Correct answer deployment of airbag Chronic renal failure is a condition that - Correct answer often caused by hypertension or diabetes A generalized seizure is characterized by - Correct answer severe twitching of all body muscles PID typically does not affect the - Correct answer urinary bladder
