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EMT PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS
WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
What is the rate of CPR in breaths and compressions: - answer-6 breaths and 110 compressions in a minute What is considered tachycardic for an adult? - answer-heart rate more than 100 What is considered bradycardic for an adult? - answer-Heart rate less than 60 When is nitroglycerin not advised to be administered? - answer-if the systolic blood pressure is less than 100 Where does blood flow after it leaves the left ventricle? - answer-it flows to the aortic arch What medication is Erectile Dysfunction medications a contraindication? - answer-nitroglycerin What is the parasympathetic system responsible for? - answer-slowing the heart rate and intestinal activity What is the function of the carotid artery? - answer-it carries blood from the heart to the head Are open ended or close ended questions better to ask? - answer-open ended questions; it avoids the yes/no answer what delivers blood to the right atrium? - answer-the superior and inferior vena cava What does diastolic blood pressure refer to? - answer-it refers to the pressure of the vessels during the relaxation phase; bottom of the blood pressure What is TIA - answer-transient ischemic attack; this is where vessels in the brain are blocked for a few minutes When do you change roles during CPR? - answer-every two minutes What is another name for a heart attack? - answer-acute myocardial infarction
What does nitroglycerin do? - answer-nitroglycerin dilates the vessels to reduce the hearts preload When cells are deprived of oxygen and die they are called? - answer-infarcted cells What type of heart attack is extremely common in elderly? - answer-silent heart attack What is arteriosclerosis? - answer-thickening of arterial walls What is pericardial tamponade? - answer-the heart is impeded by fluid in the pericardium What happens when someone has a pericardial tamponade? - answer-low blood pressure; muffled heart sound; weak pulse due to the hearts struggles to pump If a patient is unresponsive with a pulse you: - answer-2 quick rescue breaths then breaths 10- every minute what does a sphygmonometer measure? - answer-it measures blood pressure what is a normal systolic blood pressure for a child? - answer-80- what are three things to check if suspicious of a stroke? - answer-speech, facial droop, arm drift what are the actions of nitroglycerin - answer-smooth muscle relaxation, reduces cardiac workload, dilates coronary arteries, and dilates systemic arteries what happens if a patient has preeclampsia? - answer-hypertensive; extremely high blood pressure and swelling in extremeties; susceptible to seizures what is an ischemic stroke? - answer-blood flow being cut off from part of the brain what is the normal heart rate for a child - answer-70-110 beats per minute what ratio should 2 person cpr on a child be done at? - answer-15: what is the correct treatment for someone undergoing aphyxial cardiac arrest? - answer-5 cycles of CPR prior to retrieving the AED or emergency response system what is the most common reason for cardiac arrest in children? - answer-respiratory arrest what does the term lumen refer to in EMS? - answer-the diameter of a tube
Femur Blood Loss: - answer-1500 mL Pelvic blood loss: - answer-2000 mL abdomen loss with 1 inch distention: - answer-1000-2000 mL hematemisis signs: - answer-blood in vomit hematochezia signs: - answer-bright red blood in feces; indicates a bleed in the lower GI tract Melena signs: - answer-dark red blood in feces; indicates a bleed in the upper respiratory tract what do you do if an internal organ is exposed? - answer-occlusive dressing x4; flex hips/knees if no spinal injury if an object is impaled what do you do? - answer-manually secure; control bleeding and stabilize object ecchymosis is: - answer-a bruise; deoxygenated blood in the tissue fist size hemotoma causes how much blood loss? - answer-10% blood loss how do you treat a chest impalement? - answer-occlusive dressing on 3 sides how do you treat a neck injury? - answer-occlusive dressing on 4 sides; consider c collar what are the 5 steps to stop external bleeding? - answer-direct pressure, tourniquet, pressure bandage, shock treatment (oxygen, elevation, blanket), rapid transport what are the 5 steps to stop internal bleeding? - answer-assess for shock, splint PRN, monitor Vital signs, rapid transport PASG indications: - answer-pelvic fracture, HYPOtension, PASG contraindications: - answer-pulmonary edema (absolute); penetrating thoracic, eviseration, pregnancy, impaled abdomen what type of chemical burn is worse, acid or alkali? - answer-alkali is worse compartment syndrome: - answer-pressure in space around the capillaries exceeds the pressure in needed to perfuse the tissues; blood flow is cut off and cells are hypoxic; extremity may feel hard and pulses may be normal
what is the only way out of the skull? - answer-foramen magnum increased CO2 affect in intracranial pressure - answer-cerebral vessels dilate;Increased blood flow decreased CO2, effect in intracranial pressure - answer-cerebral vessels constrict; decreasing blood flow head trauma level 1 signs/symptoms: - answer-decorticate posturing; pupils mid sized and reactive; cheyne-stokes breathing head trauma level 2 signs/symptoms: - answer-decerebrate posturing; extension of upper extremities; torso and legs; pupils mid sized and fixed; central neurogenic hyperventilation head trauma level 3 signs/symptoms: - answer-flaccid, no reaction to pain, pupils fixed and dilated basilar skull fracture signs/symptoms: - answer-raccoon eyes; bruising behind ears; blood and CSF from ears/nose epidural hematoma: - answer-blood "pocket"; above the dura mater, usually from a rapidly expanding arterial bleed subdural hematoma: - answer-below the dura mater; usually from slowly expanding venous bleed; slowly develops over hours to days acute subdural hematoma: - answer-expands rapidly due to size of vessel; develops in a few hours increasing ICP causes: - answer-edema, ischemia, hemmorage treatments for closed head injury - answer-o2, ppv 12-16 bpm; capnography, monitor LOC, maybe reverse trendelenburg, c-spine precautions most common vertebrae injuries for elderly: - answer-C1 and C neurogenic shock: - answer-warm, red, dry skin and maybe low BP; caused by injury to thoracic or above; decreased pulse inspiration: - answer-active; pressure drops, air is sucked in
pediatric assessment triangle: - answer-appearance: overall mental status; work of breathing: circulation to skin differences in geriatric patient: - answer-BP drops sooner; decreased cough reflex; hypertensive patients may have normal BP during shock the five "rights" - answer-right patient, right medication, right dose, right time, right route of administration inidactions of Asprin: - answer-patient having chest pain; may keep vessels that deliver blood to the heart from completely shutting off; suggestive of a heart attack contraindications of aspirin: - answer-allergy; patient with bleeding ulcers/internal bleeding dosage of aspirin: - answer-162-324 mg; 81 mg each baby aspriin dosage of nitroglycerin: - answer-0.4 mg indication of nitroglycerin - answer-cardiac chest pain what does nitroglycerin do? - answer-vasodilator; drops your preload to help the heart pump; reduces workload; drops blood pressure conditions that must be met before administering nitroglycerin: - answer-minimum systolic of 9ommhg; heart rate should be between 50-100; max of 3 contraindications of nitroglycerin - answer-systolic lower than 90; cannot take with erectile dysfunciton medications; allergy indications for oral glucose: - answer-altered mental status; diabetes history; ability to swallow contraindications for oral glucose: - answer-unconcsious; inability to swallow action of oral glucose: - answer-increases blood sugar and brain sugar levels side effects of oral glucose: - answer-airway obstruciton actions of epinephrine: - answer-mimics response of sympathetic nervous system; constricts blood vessels to improve blood pressure; relaxes smooth muscles to improve breathing; stimulates heartbeat; reverses swelling and hives
side effects of epinephrine: - answer-increased heart rate, pale skin, dizziness, chest pain, headache, nausea, vommiting, anxiousness, excitiability indications for epinephrine: - answer-hypertension; alterned mentation, breathing problems indications for albuterol: - answer-s/s of dyspnea with bronchoconstriction, wheezing contraindications of albuterol: - answer-not responsive enough to use; precautuions when chest pain; hr> dosage of albuterol in neb form: - answer-2.5 mg/ml indications for activated charcoal: - answer-poison ingested by mouth within two hours time contraindications for activated charcoal: - answer-altered mental status; swallowed acids or alkalis wheezing: - answer-high pitched whistling; constriction of bronchioles; LOWER airway; treat with albuterol common conditions where wheezing is present: - answer-asthma, emphysema, chronic bronchitis, COPD rhonchi: - answer-snoring/rattling; thick mucuous secretion; sound changes when cough and move common conditions where rhonchi is present: - answer-pneumonia; aspiration; chronic bronchitis, emphysema crackles/rales: - answer-bubbly osund during inhalation; fluid surrounding or filling the bronchioles/alveoli; base of lungs exhibit first common conditions where crackles/rales are present: - answer-pulmonary edema, pneumonia, CHF treatment for crackles rales: - answer-ppv/bvm/cpap hypoxia vs hypoxemia: - answer-hypoxia is decreaesd oxygen in tissues/cells; hypoxemia: decreased oxygne in blood stream
what side of heart failure does pulmonary embolism lead to? - answer-right sided heart failure s/s of pulmonary embolism: - answer-sudden unexplained dyspnea; localized stabbing sharp chest pain; tachynea; tachycardia; syncope; cool moist skin; anxiety cyanosis; crackles what are the three things always present in a pulmonary embolism: - answer-chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea what is pulmonary edema: - answer-patient commonly has cardiac disypfuction there are two types; cardiogenic and non cardiogenic cardiognic pulmonary edema: - answer-LEFT sided heart failure; decreased blood flow increased pressure in pulmonary capillaries; fluid leaks into alveoli non cardiogenic pulmonary edema: - answer-destruction of capillary beds; inflammation, alveolar/capillary walls destroyed; fluid moves in and around alvelli s/s of pulmonary edema - answer-tachycardia; anxiety; tripod; crackles, cyanosis, JVD pneumothorax - answer-rupter of protion of lung where air enteres the pleural cavity; s/s of pneumothorax: - answer-sudden SOB; sharp stabbing pain; decreased breath sounds on ONE side; subcutaneous empheysema what is contraindicated in a pnemothorax: - answer-CPAP; you must use a bvm what is cystic fibrosis: - answer-pulmonary disfunction as well as changes in mucus secreting glands that block airway; s/s of cystic fibrosis: - answer-thick mucus when coughing; gastrointestional complaints; ab pain; malnutrition; malaise; reoccuring cough what is hyperventilation syndrom - answer-patient is really excited and breaths faster and deeper s/s of hyperventilation syndrome - answer-fatigue nervous dizzy; calcium levels decrease so mucles in hands and feet cramp epiglottis: - answer-common in pediatrics; inflammation of the UPPER airway s/s of epiglottis - answer-dyspnea; fever; sore throat; cyanosis
what type fo breathing is found in epiglottis: - answer-stridor what is whooping cough: - answer-UPPER airway infection; highly contagious; starts as cold can progress to pneumonia respiratory distress in pedis: - answer-retractions are an early sign; grunting; see-saw breathing, increased accessory muscle use respiratory failure in pedis: - answer-head bobbing, see saw breathing; core cyanosis; loss of muscle tone; bradycardia; absent breath sounds; hypotention what is the postion of comfort for respiratory emergencys? - answer-flowlers kussmaul sign: - answer-JDV during inhalation and returns to normal during exhalation; indicates severely increased pressure in chest or around the heart myocardial ischemia: - answer-insufficient fuels getting to heart cells; causes irritation ischemic chest pain - answer-constant; not changing with movement or palpation; indication of myociaridal ischemia; causes referred pain bc heart has no sensory nerves atherosclerosis: - answer-buildup of fat and cholesterol; s/s of acute coronary syndromes: - answer-crushing, pressure, squeezing, radiate ot arm, shoulder back; constant; pale cool skin; nausea, dizziness, synocpe; abnormla heart beats; shortness of breath s/s of a heart attack: - answer-radiating chest discomfort; anxiety; dyspnea; sense of impending doom; diaphresis; vommiting; rapid and irregular pulse; JDV; edema what is a silent MI - answer-heart attack; common in women, elderly, diabetics; no chest pain; but yes shortnes of breath, nasuea, lightheadedness and weakness angia pectoris: - answer-temporary interruption of fuel; "chest pain" s/s of angia pectoris: - answer-cardiac chest pain; radiating; cool clammy anxiety, diaphroesis; treat with nitro thoracic aortic aneurysm/dissection: - answer-aneuryms: occurs when weakened section of aortic wall begins to dilate; pulsating mass
grand mal seizures (primary): - answer-both hemishperes of the brain; lasts only a few minues; loss of conciousness simple partial: - answer-will remain concious; complex partial: - answer-altered mental status; awake but in daze and unaware secondary seizure: - answer-occur as a result of "insult" to the body absence seizure: - answer-loss of awareness characterized by a blank stare; mistaken for daydreaming fibrile - answer-young age; due to rapid temperature increase status seizure - answer-prolonged seizure that lasts greater than ten minutes; hypoxia is a threat; syncope: - answer-fainting; usually occurs when a person is standing; place supine type 1 diabetes: - answer-no significant isulin production; requires doses of insulin; DKA -
hyperglycemic condition type 2 diabetes - answer-non insulin dependent (adult onset); hypoglycemia: - answer-BGL <50; insulin shot; rapid progression s/s of hypoglycemia: - answer-hunger, weakness, salivation, dilated pupils; tachycardia hyperglycemia: - answer-glocose builds up in blood because cannot enter cells fast enough; BGL 200-500 mg/dL; DKA (type 1) hyperglycemia: - answer-cells burn fat for energy as glucose collects in blood; fruity breath; dehydration; 3 p's; kussmaul respiration HHNS (type 2) hyperglycemia: - answer-dehyrdation; some insulin is being produced so some blucose is getting to cells therefore there is no large ketone buildup; NO kussmaul's respirations or fruity breath position of comfort for anphylyactic shock - answer-modified trendelenburg s/s of cyanide poisoning: - answer-hypoxia at a cellular level; confusion; agitation; burning in mouth; dyspnea; bitter almonds?
s/s of stimulant drugs: - answer-dilated pupils; elevated heart rate; agitation/excitation; unresponsiveness to pn s/s of depressants: - answer-decrease hr, bp, rr; depress mental status; cool clammy and pale bc poor perfusion from hypotension stages of alcohol withdrawl: - answer-tremors; hallucinagens; seizures; delerium tremors (high felever, severe confusion, tachycardia) wernicke korsakoff sydnrome: - answer-chronic brain sydnrome resulting from toxic effect of alchol ;paralysis of the eys, dementia, hypothermia; eventual coma s/s of abdominal aortic aneurysm - answer-gradual onset; "tearing sensation"; pulsating mass; cool/cyanotic legs and feet; what is an AAA? - answer-weakened ballooned enlarged area of the wall of the ab. aorta; what causes pancreatis: - answer-alcohol, gall stones, infection s/s of pancreatis: - answer-upper quad pain; pain that radiates to the back; mild jaundice peritonitis: - answer-inflammation of the peritoneum from blood/pus and bacteria that leaked into the cavity; s/s of peritonitis: - answer-abdominal pain; lack of appitite, fever and chills; markle test/heel jar test cholecystitis: - answer-inflammation of the gallbladder; Fat, fourty, fertile, farty, female s/s of cholecystitis: - answer-ruq pain/tenderness; radiates to right shoulder; onset after a fatty meel appendicitis s/s - answer-early:dull pain at umbilicus; later: RLQ at mcburney point; positive markle test ulcer: - answer-open wound/sore in the GI tract; breakdown of protective lining may lead to bleeding/perforation s/s of ulcer: - answer-burning pain; LUQ; hematemis; hematochezia; melena
