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CE BROKER ACTUAL REVISION TEST VERIFIED ANSWERS ALREAD GRADED A+ 24/25, Exams of Nursing

Cheyney University of PennsylvaniaNursing

CE BROKER ACTUAL REVISION TEST VERIFIED ANSWERS ALREAD GRADED A+ 24/25

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/12/2025

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CE BROKER ACTUAL REVISION TEST VERIFIED
ANSWERS ALREAD GRADED A+ 24/25
1. An injury to a patient resulting from medical intervention or inaction
by a health care provider and that is unrelated to the patient's
underlying medical condition is a(n) .: A) Sentinel event
2. Which of the following is NOT reviewable under the Joint Commission's
sen- tinel event policy?: C) Medication errors that do not result in death or
permanent loss of function.
3. The process of identifying the basic causal factors and variations in
perfor- mance leading to the occurrence or possible occurrence of a
sentinel event is known as .: B) Root cause analysis
4. The failure of a planned action to be completed as intended is
referred to as a(n) .: D) Error of execution
5. A medical error that had the potential to cause harm but did not
through timely intervention or by chance is referred to as a(n) .: B)
Near miss
6. Using a process or procedure that would not have achieved the
intended outcome regardless of the manner in which it was executed is
referred to as a(n) .: A) Error of planning
7. Which of the following is a common reason for patients not
reporting a medical error?: D) All of the above.
8. Which of the following are common root causes for the unintended
retention of foreign objects in patients following an invasive procedure?:
E) All of the above.
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Download CE BROKER ACTUAL REVISION TEST VERIFIED ANSWERS ALREAD GRADED A+ 24/25 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

1 /

CE BROKER ACTUAL REVISION TEST VERIFIED

ANSWERS ALREAD GRADED A+ 24/

  1. An injury to a patient resulting from medical intervention or inaction by a health care provider and that is unrelated to the patient's underlying medical condition is a(n) .: A) Sentinel event
  2. Which of the following is NOT reviewable under the Joint Commission's sen- tinel event policy?: C) Medication errors that do not result in death or permanent loss of function.
  3. The process of identifying the basic causal factors and variations in perfor- mance leading to the occurrence or possible occurrence of a sentinel event is known as .: B) Root cause analysis
  4. The failure of a planned action to be completed as intended is referred to as a(n) .: D) Error of execution
  5. A medical error that had the potential to cause harm but did not through timely intervention or by chance is referred to as a(n) .: B) Near miss
  6. Using a process or procedure that would not have achieved the intended outcome regardless of the manner in which it was executed is referred to as a(n) .: A) Error of planning
  7. Which of the following is a common reason for patients not reporting a medical error?: D) All of the above.
  8. Which of the following are common root causes for the unintended retention of foreign objects in patients following an invasive procedure?: E) All of the above.

2 /

  1. Which of the following practices are discouraged since they may lead to a medical error?: E) B and C only.
  2. Which of the following are examples of safe medication dispensing and administration practices?: E) A and B only.
  3. The majority of medical errors occur in inpatient settings.: B) False
  4. When JCAHCO becomes aware of a sentinel event, a health care facility must submit a thorough and credible root cause analysis and an action plan addressing the issue within days.: B) 45
  5. Hospitals are required to report sentinel events to JCAHCO.: B) False
  6. Hospitals can define a sentinel event in a way that makes sense for the or- ganization and the type of facility as long as the definition remains consistent with the JCAHCO definition.: A) True
  7. Under Florida law, a serious adverse event, such as wrong-site surgery, must be reported to the Agency for Health Care Administration within days.: A) 15
  8. Since a near miss does not result in patient harm, there is no need to perform a root cause analysis.: B) False
  9. The majority of medical errors are the result of systemic problems with the health care system rather than inherently bad health care providers.: A.) TRUE
  10. Approximately of Americans have experienced a medical error per- sonally or through someone close to them.: C) 40%
  11. The goal of root cause analysis is to .: A) Identify systems and process- es that can be redesigned or implemented to reduce the risk of similar events occurring in the future.
  12. Which of the following is a common technique used during root cause analysis?: D) The Five Whys.

4 / to be considered informed? (Choose all that apply): E) A, B, and C.

  1. Which of the following is an exception to the informed consent requirement for HIV testing?: D) All of the above
  2. The Department of Health and Human Services have provided ART guide- lines that can be broken into which of the following options? (Choose all that apply): E) A and C only.
  3. Which of the following is a permitted disclosure of HIV test information under Florida law? (Choose all that apply): E) B and D only.
  4. , which involves taking a combination of tenofovir and emtricitabine on a daily basis, can reduce the risk of HIV infection through sex by 90% and from intravenous drug use by up to 70%.: C) PrEP
  5. Which of the following may be prescribed in emergency circumstances following HIV exposure to reduce the chances of infection?: A) PEP
  6. Which of the following can help reduce the chances of contracting or transmitting HIV or other infections in the workplace?: D) All of the above
  7. The majority of AIDS deaths are from the virus itself.: B) False
  8. What is the mechanism of action of NRTIs in antiretroviral therapy of HIV infection?: C) NRTIs interrupt the HIV replication cycle via competitive inhibition of HIV reverse transcriptase and termination of the DNA chain.
  9. Which of the following statements about domestic violence is NOT true?- : B) Abusers have an anger management or impulse control problem.
  10. Congress passed the Domestic Violence Act in .: B) 1978
  11. Which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose all that apply): E) C and D only.
  12. Which of the following statements is NOT true?: A) Sexual abuse can

5 / only occur when there has not been a prior consensual sexual relationship.

  1. Approximately one-third of men and women have experienced intimate partner violence during their lifetime.: A) True
  2. The annual cost of intimate partner violence is estimated at .: D) $9.3 billion
  3. During the of the abuse cycle, the abuser begins to exert power and control over the victim and will often set "rules" for their partner and threaten consequences if the rules are broken.: C) The tension- building phase
  4. The is characterized by explosive outbursts of abuse, which are often physical in nature, as the perpetrator attempts to reassert control and dominance over the victim.: A) The violent episode phase
  5. During the , the abuse may offer apologies, express feelings of remorse for their actions, promise to end the violence, and even shower the victim with gestures of love and affection.: B) The reconciliation phase
  6. Which of the following statements is NOT true?: D) There is normally a decrease in domestic violence calls during the summer months.
  7. In addition to women, which of the following groups are at risk for intimate partner violence?: F) All of the above
  8. Perpetrators of domestic violence are typically insecure and have a poor self-image.: A) True
  9. In general, a victim's reaction to abuse can be categorized as which of the following?: A)Coping, managing, resisting
  10. In most cases, the victim will say something that will lead you to suspect abuse.: B) False
  11. Most abuse victims are so desperate for help that they will normally

7 / Written

  1. Which would the patient have difficulty in due to cognitive impairment?: All of the above
  2. If the family is supportive of the patient, it would be helpful to include them in most communications: T
  3. The two types of tinnitus identified are:: Subjective and Objective
  4. The tonal subtype of tinnitus is best described as:: Continuous
  5. Tinnitus is found most frequently in which racial and ethnic group:: White, non-Hispanic
  6. How many Americans are thought to struggle with tinnitus:: Over 45 million
  7. There are many medications approved for the treatment of tinnitus:: False
  8. Another subtype other than tonal is:: Musical
  9. During the assessment of a patient with tinnitus, which tool may prove especially useful?: Visual Analog Scale
  10. Sufferers of tinnitus often also suffer from:: A, B, and C
  11. Which of the following is thought to account for the increased incidence of tinnitus in males:: Loud workplaces
  12. Tinnitus may directly affect which of the following?: SAFETY
  13. What does the IOM stand for?: Institute of Medicine
  14. Pain is: "an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.": T
  15. Acute pain commonly refers to pain which lasts for many months or years.: F
  16. Chronic pain is resistant to treatment which is effective against acute pain.: T

8 /

  1. The IASP describes persistent pain more specifically as nocioceptive pain, neuropathic pain and psychogenic pain.: T
  2. Which of the following is a common cause for pain management?: ALL OF THE ABOVE
  3. What does VRS stand for?: Verbal Rating Scales
  4. Psychotherapy is useful when pain is accompanied by other symptoms such as depression or anxiety or when pain coexists with substance abuse.: T
  5. The inflammatory process is a normal part of healing.: T
  6. Combining the strengths of both self-management and the pain medicine model results in what is known as integrated pain management (IPM).: T
  7. Geriatric nursing is: ALL OF THE ABOVE
  8. Women generally have a longer life expectancy than men.: T
  9. Older adults are evenly distributed throughout the US.: F
  10. Nurses caring for older adults should be:: ALL OF THE ABOVE
  11. Normal physiologic changes in the elderly include:: C) Diminished renal, cardiac and lung function.
  12. All older adults have at least one chronic disease; 65 percent have two or more.: F
  13. The top three causes of death in older adults are:: B) Heart disease, cancer and chronic lower respiratory disease.
  14. Which of these statements about memory in the elderly is/are true?: F) B and C Only
  15. Progressive dementia in the elderly is usually the result of:: B) Alzheimer's disease, Corticobasal degeneration, Frontotemporal disorders, Lewy body dementia and vascular disorders.
  16. All body systems and organs undergo some degree of age-

10 / charting

  1. medical records focus on the patient's needs and progress in specific problem areas rather than general assessment information.: POMR documentation
  2. When receiving a verbal or telephone order, you should:: ALL OF THE ABOVE
  3. Which of the following is NOT true?: The HIPAA Security Rule permits certain uses of protected health information while still protecting the privacy of patients.