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BIOLOGY COMREHENSIVE ASSESSMENT TEST QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS RATED 100%, Exams of Nursing

King's College London (KCL)Nursing

BIOLOGY COMREHENSIVE ASSESSMENT TEST QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS RATED 100% 1. True or False: A virus is considered a microorganism. False. Viruses are not living and as such are not considered microorganisms. Viruses can, however, be classified as microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses. 2. What is the smallest biological unit of life? A cell. 3. At a generalized level, all cells are comprised of what? Macromolecules* *A student may also answer: Proteins, Lipids, Nucleic acids and Polysaccharides but they must answer with all four to be fully correct. 1. How many dif

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BIOLOGY COMREHENSIVE ASSESSMENT TEST QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS RATED
100%
1. True or False: A virus is considered a microorganism.
False. Viruses are not living and as such are not considered microorganisms. Viruses can, however, be
classified as microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses.
2. What is the smallest biological unit of life?
A cell.
3. At a generalized level, all cells are comprised of what?
Macromolecules*
*A student may also answer: Proteins, Lipids, Nucleic acids and Polysaccharides but they must answer
with all four to be fully correct.
1. How many different types of amino acids are available from which to make proteins?20
2. Define an essential amino acid.
An essential amino acid cannot be produced by the human body and as such must be take in from the
environment through alternative sources (i.e) food.
1. What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles?
DNA- deoxyribonucleic acid
RNA- Ribonucleic acid
DNA- Cellular life has DNA and a role that DNA has is long-term storage of information, it holds the
characteristics of living organisms.
RNA- Is the carrier of information in form of amino acid sequence. It converts the information in the
DNA and synthesizes proteins
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Download BIOLOGY COMREHENSIVE ASSESSMENT TEST QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS RATED 100% and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

BIOLOGY COMREHENSIVE ASSESSMENT TEST QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS RATED

1. True or False: A virus is considered a microorganism.

False. Viruses are not living and as such are not considered microorganisms. Viruses can, however, be

classified as microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses.

2. What is the smallest biological unit of life?

A cell.

3. At a generalized level, all cells are comprised of what?

Macromolecules*

*A student may also answer: Proteins, Lipids, Nucleic acids and Polysaccharides but they must answer

with all four to be fully correct.

1. How many different types of amino acids are available from which to make proteins? 20

2. Define an essential amino acid.

An essential amino acid cannot be produced by the human body and as such must be take in from the

environment through alternative sources (i.e) food.

1. What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles?

DNA- deoxyribonucleic acid

RNA- Ribonucleic acid

DNA- Cellular life has DNA and a role that DNA has is long-term storage of information, it holds the

characteristics of living organisms.

RNA- Is the carrier of information in form of amino acid sequence. It converts the information in the

DNA and synthesizes proteins

1. Complete the following DNA strand and indicate how many bonds are formed for each

complementary pair:

3’ GGTCATCG 5’

5’ CC AGC 3’

3’ GGTCATCG 5’

5’ CCAGTAGC 3’

There are 2 bonds formed between A and T, and 3 bonds between G and C.

1. The plasma membrane (select all that are true):

A. Restricts movement of materials in and out of the cell

B. Is often a triple layer comprised of lipids

C. Prevents essential nutrients from escaping

D. Contains hydrophobic tails pointing outward

A and C

2. How many carbon atoms are present in the monosaccharide glucose?

A. 1

B. 3

C. 6

D. 12

C. The molecular formula of Glucose is C 6 H 12 O 6

True .

. True or False: A defining characteristic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue layers.

A, C and D all contain chitin.

D.

Molds

C.

Yeast

B.

Bacteria A. Mushrooms that apply.

  1. A defining characteristic of fungi is the presence of chitin in the cell walls. Which of following also contain chitin? Select all Light (sunlight); chemical (sugars)
  2. Microorganisms classified as Plantae obtain most of their energy by converting _____ energy into _______ energy. Tru e
  3. True of False: All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are heterotrophic.

A,B,C,

D

D.

Protista C. Fungi

B.

Plantae

A.

Animalia

. Which of the following microorganisms are considered to be Eukarya? Select all that apply.

temperatures and even oxygen-poor conditions. True. Archaea can often be found in harsh conditions such as high salt levels, high acid conditions, high True or False: Archaea is noted for its ability to survive under harsh conditions.

G. Golgi apparatus F. Nucleus E. Plasma membrane D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum C. Centriole B. Lysosome A. Cell wall

  1. Identify the following cellular components by matching the number with the description. B. Ribosomes are located in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells and in the ER of eukaryotic cells. E. Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes D. Protein modification and distribution C. To produce energy (ATP) B. Protein synthesis A. Lipid synthesis
  2. The function of the ribosome is (select all that apply):

A, B, C, E

E. Algae D. Mammalian cells C. Bacteria B. Fungi A. Plants

  1. Cell walls are found in which of the following (select all that ): apply

2. An organism that derives its energy (generates ATP) from photons of light is called a _________?

Phototrophic microorganism.

An organism that derives its energy by removing electrons from elemental sulfur would be classified as

a __________?

Lithotroph

4. A reactive intermediate would be present in which phosphorylation process?

A. Photophosphorylation

B. Substrate-level phosphorylationC. Oxidative

phosphorylation

B. The chemical compound losing the phosphate group is referred to as the phosphorylated reactive

intermediate.

1. The catabolism of a single molecule of glucose goes through what 3 distinct transitions?

The breakdown of glucose goes through (1) Glycolysis then (2) Fermentation or Respiration and

finally through (3) the electron transport chain (ETC).

2. What is the most energetic transition in the catabolism of glucose?

The electron transport chain yields 34 ATP while both glycolysis and fermentation (or respiration)

each yield only 2 ATP.

3. Identify the reactants of the following chemical equation:

Glucose + 2NAD+ → 2 NADH + 2 Pyruvate + 2 ATP

The reactants are to the left of the arrow: Glucose and 2NAD+

4. The presence of what molecule ‘signals’ to the cell that glycolysis is about to start? Glucose-6-

phosphate (G6P)

5. True or False: In the absence of oxygen fermentation produces 2 ATP.

False. Fermentation only reduces NADH back to NAD+

1. What is the primary byproduct of the TCA cycle? Select all that apply.

A. NAD+

B. FAD

C. NADH

D. FADH 2

C and D. The TCA cycle produces an abundance of reduced electron carriers (NADH and FADH 2 ).

2. True or False. The reactants of the TCA cycle directly enter and fuel the electron transport

system.

False. The products of the TCA cycle (reduced electron carriers) enter and drive the production of

ATP via the electron transport system.

1. In the absence of glucose, which of the following can be used as alternative energy sources?

Select all that apply.

A. Lactose

B. Nucleic acids

C. Carbohydrates

D. Lipids

A, C, D can all be used as alternative energy sources.

2. For the catabolism of proteins and lipids, which of the following enzymes are used? Select all that

apply.

A. Ligases

B. Proteases

C. TransferasesD. Lipases

glucose?

Six.

2. Complete the following equation by placing the appropriate numbers where indicated.

__CO 2 + __ATP + __NADPH + __H 2 0 → __C 6 H 12 O 6 + __ADP +

__NADP+ 6 CO 2 + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH + 12 H 2 0 → C 6 H 12 O 6 + 18

ADP + 12 NADP+

1. Match the following reactions to its corresponding enzyme:

1. A-B + H2O → A-OH + B-H

2. A-B→ B-A

3. A + B → A-B 4. A-B → A + B

A- Lyases

B- Transferases

C- Oxioreductaces

D- Hydrolases

E- Ligases

F- Isomerases

1D 1. A-B + H2O → A-OH + B-H Hydrolases

2F 2. A-B→ B-A Isomerases

3E 3. A + B → A-B Ligases

4A 4. A-B → A + B Lyases

1. A micrometer is defined as

A. 10 -

B. 10 -

C.10-

D. 10-

B. A micrometer is one-millionth of a meter.

2. True or False: A nanometer is longer than a micrometer.

False. A nanometer is 1,000 times smaller than a micrometer.

1. Resolution and contrast are two critical factors that influence your ability to see an object. Explain

each.

Resolution refers to the distance between two objects at which the objects still can be seen as

separate. Poor or low resolution means two (or more) objects may appear as one.

Contrast is the difference in light absorbance between two objects. Poor contrast gives a high

background and makes the visualization of multiple objects difficult. For instance, trying to identify 2

dark colored objects at night (low light = low contrast) versus the same 2 objects in the middle of a

sunny afternoon (bright light against 2 dark objects = high contrast).

1. Assuming a fixed ocular, identify the part of the microscope you would adjust to enhance the

magnification of a sample.

A. Objective

B. Condenser

C. Iris diaphragm

D. Eye piece

B. Fine Adjustment Knob

C. Iris Diaphragm

D. Neck

E. Condenser Lens

F. Eyepiece

G. Objective

H. Base

I. Coaxial Controls

1F

2D

3B

4G

5A

6H

1. For each of the following questions select from the list below the single best answer:

Phase-Contrast

Dark Field

Fluorescence

Confocal

This type of microscope is best suited for visualizing GFP, RFP and YFP proteins.

Fluorescence

2. This type of microscope can provide detailed images of live cells without staining.

Phase-Contrast

3. This type of microscope is used to greatly increase the contrast between samples and

background by reflecting light off ofthe specimen.

False. Both heat and chemical fixation strategies will kill the cell, making motility observations

impossible.

1. You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you

could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process.

Simple stain. You could use any of the following: methylene blue, crystal violet, safranin or fuschin.

2. You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained it is sent off to the lab for

an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the

stained slide.

You would expect to see red cells (TB+) on a blue background (TB negative).

3. True or False: If a patient is suspected of having malaria, a Giemsa stain would be an

appropriate differential test to perform.

True. Giemsa stains are often used in the clinical setting to aid in the diagnosis of blood parasites.

1. True or False: Growth media is best suited for distinguishing between two similar species of

bacteria.

False. Growth media is designed to simply support (and not restrict) microbial growth.

2. A researcher is asked to determine which of two vials contains E coli and which contains

Salmonella. Knowing both are Gram-Negative while only one of them is capable of fermenting lactose,

which type of media would be best suited:

A. Growth media

B. Differential media

C. Selective media

D. Selective and Differential media

B. Differential media distinguishes between two, often related, microbes.

3. What are the requirements of a fastidious microbe?

A fastidious microbe is an organism with complex growth requirements such that if absent it will not

grow. Enriched medias thus contain these specific and essential nutrients required for the growth of a

particular subset of microorganisms.

1. True or False: LB agar is classified as a selective, non-differential media.

False. LB agar is the most basic type of agar and like LB media supports the growth of virtually all

microbes without restriction.

2. What is agar used for in microbiology?

Agar is used to create a solid, smooth surface on which microbes can grow.

1. Match the following hemolytic class with its description of activity.

1. Alpha hemolysis

B A. No hemolytic activity

2. Beta hemolysis

C B. Incomplete hemolytic activity

3. Gamma hemolysis

A C. Complete hemolytic activity

1. Columbia CNA agar is most closely related to which media:

A. Trypticase Soy Agar

B. MacConkey Agar

C. Blood agar

D. EMB agar

C. CNA agar is similar to BAP as it is also enriched with blood and allows for differentiation based on

D. Mannitol salt agar

1. What is the process of spreading a bacterial culture onto a petri dish?

Plating.

2. Describe the primary advantage of using a petri dish over growing a liquid culture?

The primary advantage is that cells are held into place. When grown in a nutrient broth, bacterial cells

can multiply but are free to move around in solution. When grown on agar within a petri dish the

fixed in such as way as to form colonies.

3. True or False: The visualization of colonies on a petri dish represents bacterial cells that have

multiplied ~2-3 times.

False. When an individual colony is visible on agar the bacterial cell has multiplied often a million

times over.

1. True or False. The purpose of a quadrant streak is to produce individual colonies of a bacterial

population.

True. The purpose of the quadrant streak is to generate individual colonies such that a single (pure)

bacterial sample can be isolated.

2. A dilution gradient is formed when carrying out what generalize plating strategy?

A quadrant (aka phase-dilution) streak. The resulting gradient should always contain within it the

growth of individual colonies.

3. In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the highest concentration of bacteria, P

or P4?

P2 (Phase 2) would contain a higher concentration of bacteria than Phase 4 (P4). The phases rank

(from highest to lowest), P1 > P2 > P3 > P4.

1. True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop must be used for each

phase.

True. Failure to do so would prevent the establishment of a dilution gradient, as the same bacterial

concentration would be spread across both phase regions.

2. In order to encourage growth of a slow growing microbe what might a researcher do during a phase

dilution streak?

A researcher may either (1) opt to perform only a 3-phase dilution streak or (2) pass the loop through

the previous phase multiple times (as opposed to only once).

3. True or False. To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher might decrease an

incubator from 37°C to 25°C.

True. Pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow faster than non-pathogenic strains at 37°C, so

researchers may set incubators at 25°C to restrict its growth.

When given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population.

Which form of media best suites this need? Why?

A. MSA agar

B. LB media containing ampicillin and neomycin

C. MacConkey agar

D. Blood agar

D. Blood agar. All other options (A, B and C) are all forms of selective media, meaning they may

potentially inhibit the growth of the unknown sample. Although blood agar is considered a

differential media, it is, most importantly, a non-selective media. Given the alternatives, this is the

best option.

1. The concept of treating all samples, whether known or unknown, as potentially hazardous (or

pathogenic) materials is known as __________.

Universal precautions.