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biology 1201 practice final exam, Exams of Biology

Louisiana State University at Alexandria Biology

practice for the final exam in biology 1201

Typology: Exams

2020/2021

Uploaded on 02/22/2022

ashton-porche 🇺🇸

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BIOLOGY 1201 Practice Final 2014 with answers

Sectional Exam Chapters 11, 18, 19, 39, 45, and 48. Each question is worth 2 points. [This

will have 50 questions.]

Chapter 18

43) In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can do which of the following?

A) turn off translation of their mRNA

B) alter the level of production of various enzymes

C) increase the number and responsiveness of their ribosomes

D) inactivate their mRNA molecules

E) alter the sequence of amino acids in certain proteins

44) Which of the following, when taken up by the cell, binds to the repressor so that the

repressor no longer binds to the operator?

A) ubiquitin

B) inducer

C) promoter

D) repressor

E) corepressor

45) In positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, an activator protein (e.g.,

CRP) binds to DNA to stimulate transcription. What helps activate activator protein?

A) increase in glucose and increase in cAMP

B) decrease in glucose and increase in cAMP

C) increase in glucose and decrease in cAMP

D) decrease in glucose and increase in repressor

E) decrease in glucose and decrease in repressor

46) In a nucleosome, what is the DNA wrapped around?

A) polymerase molecules

B) ribosomes

C) mRNA

D) histones

E) nucleolus protein

47) Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA binding domains as well as other

domains that are also specific for binding. In general, which of the following would you expect

many of them to be able to bind?

A) repressors

B) ATP

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BIOLOGY 1201 Practice Final 2014 with answers Sectional Exam Chapters 11, 18, 19, 39, 45, and 48. Each question is worth 2 points. [This will have 50 questions.] Chapter 18

In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can do which of the following? A) turn off translation of their mRNA B) alter the level of production of various enzymes C) increase the number and responsiveness of their ribosomes D) inactivate their mRNA molecules E) alter the sequence of amino acids in certain proteins
Which of the following, when taken up by the cell, binds to the repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator? A) ubiquitin B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor E) corepressor
In positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, an activator protein (e.g., CRP) binds to DNA to stimulate transcription. What helps activate activator protein? A) increase in glucose and increase in cAMP B) decrease in glucose and increase in cAMP C) increase in glucose and decrease in cAMP D) decrease in glucose and increase in repressor E) decrease in glucose and decrease in repressor
In a nucleosome, what is the DNA wrapped around? A) polymerase molecules B) ribosomes C) mRNA D) histones E) nucleolus protein
Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA binding domains as well as other domains that are also specific for binding. In general, which of the following would you expect many of them to be able to bind? A) repressors B) ATP

C) protein-based hormones D) other transcription factors/elements E) tRNA

Exons from pre-mRNA can be spliced in alternative orders to A) produce proteins with different functions B) produce mRNA that lasts longer C) be transcribed back into DNA to make new genes D) repair mutations
Hemoglobin mRNAs last a long time in the cytoplasm. Why is this? A) To allow ribosomes to attach to them. B) To allow for the translation of more polypeptides C) To speed up the rate of translation D) To enhance degradation of shorter-lived mRNAs
As soon as translation is completed, all polypeptides immediately become functioning proteins. A) True B) False Chapter 19
Which of the following characteristics, structures, or processes is common to both bacteria and viruses? A) metabolism B) ribosomes C) genetic material composed of nucleic acid D) cell division E) independent existence
Which of the following is characteristic of the lytic cycle? A) Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced. B) Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome. C) The viral genome replicates without destroying the host. D) A large number of phages are released at a time. E) The virus-host relationship usually lasts for generations.
Which viruses have single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis? A) lytic phages B) proviruses C) viroids D) bacteriophages E) retroviruses

D) viral RNA intermediates E) nothing; they self-assemble

Emerging viruses arise by… A) mutation of existing viruses. B) the spread of existing viruses to new host species. C) the spread of existing viruses more widely within their host species. D) A, B, and C E) none of these.
To cause a human pandemic, the H5N1 avian flu virus would have to… A) spread to primates such as chimpanzees. B) develop into a virus with a different host range. C) spread widely among humans D) arise independently in chickens in North and South America. E) become much less pathogenic.
RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because A) host cells rapidly destroy the viruses. B) host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome. C) these enzymes translate viral mRNA into proteins. D) these enzymes penetrate host cell membranes. E) these enzymes cannot be made in host cells. Chapter 11
Using the yeast signal transduction pathways, both types of mating cells release the mating factors. These factors bind to specific receptors on the correct cells, A) which induce changes in the cells that lead to cell fusion. B) which produce more of the a factor in a positive feedback. C) then one cell nucleus binds the mating factors and produces a new nucleus in the opposite cell. D) stimulating cell membrane disintegration, releasing the mating factors that lead to new yeast cells. E) which in turn releases a growth factor that stimulates mitosis in both cells.
What is most likely to happen to an animal's target cells that lack receptors for local regulators? A) They might compensate by receiving nutrients via a factor. B) They could develop normally in response to neurotransmitters instead. C) They could divide but never reach full size. D) They would not be able to respond to signals from nearby cells. E) Hormones would not be able to interact with target cells.

When a neuron responds to a particular neurotransmitter by opening gated ion channels, the neurotransmitter is serving as which part of the signal pathway? A) receptor B) relay molecule C) transducer D) signal molecule E) endocrine molecule
Of the following, a receptor protein in a membrane that recognizes a chemical signal is most similar to A) the active site of an enzyme that binds to a specific substrate. B) tRNA specifying which amino acids are in a polypeptide. C) a metabolic pathway operating within a specific organelle. D) an enzyme having an optimum pH and temperature for activity. E) an antibody in the immune system.
Which of the following is true for the signaling system in an animal cell that lacks the ability to produce GTP? A) It would not be able to activate and inactivate the G protein on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane. B) It could activate only the epinephrine system. C) It would be able to carry out reception and transduction but would not be able to respond to a signal. D) It would use ATP instead of GTP to activate and inactivate the G protein on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane. E) It would employ a transduction pathway directly from an external messenger.
Testosterone functions inside a cell by A) acting as a signal receptor that activates tyrosine kinases. B) binding with a receptor protein that enters the nucleus and activates specific genes. C) acting as a steroid signal receptor that activates ion channel proteins. D) becoming a second messenger that inhibits adenylyl cyclase. E) coordinating a phosphorylation cascade that increases spermatogenesis.
Which of the following is true of transcription factors? A) They regulate the synthesis of DNA in response to a signal. B) They transcribe ATP into cAMP. C) They initiate the epinephrine response in animal cells. D) They help control gene expression. E) They regulate the synthesis of lipids in the cytoplasm.
One of the major categories of receptors in the plasma membrane reacts by forming dimers, adding phosphate groups, and then activating relay proteins. Which type does this?

A) an increase in A always produces an increase in X. B) an increase in X always produces a decrease in A. C) a decrease in A always produces an increase in X. D) a decrease in X always causes a decrease in A. E) it is impossible to predict how A and X affect each other.

Testosterone is an example of a chemical signal that affects the very cells that synthesize it, the neighboring cells in the testis, along with distant cells outside the gonads. Thus, testosterone is an example of A) an autocrine signal. B) a paracrine signal. C) an endocrine signal. D) both an autocrine signal and a paracrine signal. E) an autocrine signal, a paracrine signal, and an endocrine signal.
Aspirin and ibuprofen both A) inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins. B) inhibit the release of nitric oxide, a potent vasodilator. C) activate the paracrine signaling pathways that form blood clots. D) stimulate the release of oxytocin. E) stimulate vasoconstriction in the kidneys.
Different body cells can respond differently to the same peptide hormones because A) different target cells have different sets of genes. B) each cell converts that hormone to a different metabolite. C) a target cell's response is determined by the components of its signal transduction pathways. D) the circulatory system regulates responses to hormones by routing the hormones to specific targets. E) the hormone is chemically altered in different ways as it travels through the circulatory system.
The interrelationships between the endocrine and the nervous systems are especially apparent in A) a neuron in the spinal cord. B) a steroid-producing cell in the adrenal cortex. C) a neurosecretory cell in the hypothalamus. D) a brain cell in the cerebral cortex. E) a cell in the pancreas that produces digestive enzymes.
If a person loses a large amount of water in a short period of time, he or she may die from dehydration. ADH can help reduce water loss through its interaction with its target cells in the A) anterior pituitary. B) posterior pituitary.

C) adrenal gland. D) bladder. E) kidney.

The hypothalamus A) functions only as an endocrine target, by having lots of receptors on its cells. B) functions only as a osmoregulator C) does not have any hormone receptors on its cells. D) secretes tropic hormones that act only on the gonads. E) includes neurosecretory cells that terminate in the posterior pituitary.
Fight-or-flight reactions include activation of A) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate. B) the thyroid gland, leading to an increase in the blood calcium concentration. C) the anterior pituitary gland, leading to cessation of gonadal function. D) the adrenal gland, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine. E) the pancreas, leading to a reduction in the blood sugar concentration.
The body's reaction to PTH (parathyroid hormone), a reduction in plasma levels of calcium, can be opposed by A) thyroxine. B) epinephrine. C) growth hormone. D) calcitonin. E) glucagon. Chapter 39
What is thigmotropism? A) Response to sunlight B) Response to touch C) Response to gravity D) Response to magnetism E) Response to moonlight
Which of the following statements is true regarding phototropism? A) It is caused by an electrical signal. B) One chemical involved is ethylene. C) Auxin causes a growth increase on one side of the stem. D) Removing the apical meristem enhances phototropism.
The ripening of fruit and the dropping of leaves and fruit are principally controlled by A) auxins. B) cytokinins. C) indole acetic acid.

The point of connection between two communicating neurons is called the A) axon hillock. B) dendrite. C) synapse. D) cell body. E) glia.
In the communication between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle, A) the motor neuron is considered the presynaptic cell and the skeletal muscle is the postsynaptic cell. B) the motor neuron is considered the postsynaptic cell and the skeletal muscle is the presynaptic cell. C) action potentials are possible on the skeletal muscle but not the motor neuron. D) the motor neuron fires action potentials but the skeletal muscle is not electrochemically excitable.
For a neuron with an initial membrane potential at -70 mV, an increase in the movement of potassium ions out of that neuron's cytoplasm would result in the A) depolarization of the neuron. B) hyperpolarization of the neuron. C) replacement of potassium ions with sodium ions. D) replacement of potassium ions with calcium ions. E) neuron switching on its sodium-potassium pump to restore the initial conditions.
Saltatory conduction is a term applied to A) conduction of impulses across electrical synapses. B) an action potential that skips the axon hillock in moving from the dendritic region to the axon terminal. C) rapid movement of an action potential reverberating back and forth along a neuron. D) jumping from one neuron to an adjacent neuron. E) jumping from one node of Ranvier to the next in a myelinated neuron.
The surface on a neuron that discharges the contents of synaptic vesicles is the A) dendrite. B) axon hillock. C) node of Ranvier. D) postsynaptic membrane. E) presynaptic membrane.
An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) occurs in a membrane made more permeable to A) potassium ions. B) sodium ions. C) calcium ions.

D) ATP.

E) all neurotransmitter molecules. The following 50 questions are review questions covering the whole semester. Each is worth 1 point. There are series of five answers followed by questions related to those answers. Each answer can be used ONE TIME, MULTIPLE TIMES, or NO TIMES. A) Homeostasis B) Reductionism C) Tissue D) Hypothesis E) Induction

A collection of connected cells c. tissue
The opposite of what whole organism biologists do
A key part of the scientific method d. hypothesis A) Carbon B) Sodium C) Ionic bonds D) H-bonds E) Van der Waal’s interactions
hold methyl groups together in an aqueous environment
hold water molecules together d. h-bonds
An element often in ionic form b. sodium A) Basic B) Polar C) Acidic D) Enantiomer E) Water

Extent of disorder
Entering a cell without crossing a membrane A) Glucose B) Pyruvate C) Acetyl CoA D) NADH E) ATP Synthase
Most directly involved in producing 34 ATP’s per glucose molecule
Produced in the cytoplasm
Most immediate source of FADH 2
Oxidized by the electron transport chain A) Ethanol B) Lactic Acid C) NADH D) ATP E) Electron Transport Chain
Produced by athletes when oxygen runs low
Not part of fermentation A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

G 3 P goes here
H 2 0 goes here
O 2 goes here
CO 2 goes here OH A) Phosphate group B) Sugar C) Nitrogenous base D) A + B + C E) none
Attached at the 1’ site
A purine
A A) DNA polarity B) Semi-conservative replication C) Double Helix D) AT vs GC bonding E) All
Chargaff’s rule
5’ to 3’ versus 3’ to 5’
Watson & Crick’s discovery A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase C) Ribosomes D) Introns E) Polypeptides

Corresponds to a gene A) Linkage B) Sex Linked C) Segregation D) Independent Assortment E) Non-independent assortment
Caused by linkage
Hemophilia A) Operon B) Tryptophan C) cAMP D) Positive feedback E) Factor
Important to gene regulation in eukaryotes
A series of connected genes with related purpose
An amino acid