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BIOD 171 Microbiology Assessment Exam Questions with Correct Answers, Exams of Nursing

King's College London (KCL)Nursing

BIOD 171 Microbiology Assessment Exam Questions with Correct Answers 1. A virus is classified as a microbe.True. Although viruses are not living and as such are not considered microorganisms, they can, however, be classified as microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses. 2. True or False: The smallest biological unit of life is the molecule.False. The smallest biological unit of life is the cell. 3. What are

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BIOD 171 Microbiology Assessment Exam Questions with Correct
Answers
1. A virus is classified as a microbe.True. Although viruses are not living and
as such are not considered microorganisms, they can, however, be classified as
microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses.
2. True or False: The smallest biological unit of life is the molecule.False. The
smallest biological unit of life is the cell.
3. What are the 4 main types of macromolecules found in cells?Proteins,
Lipids, Nucleic acids and Polysaccharide
1. Proteins are formed from various combinations of __________ of which there
are ____ known forms.Amino acids, 20
2. How many amino acids are classified as being essential amino acids?9
1. What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles?There are two
major types of nucleic acids: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic
acid). Nucleic acids are chemical molecules that carry genetic information within
the cell. DNA contains a vast amount of hereditary information and is
responsible for the inheritable characteristics of living organisms. RNA is
responsible for deciphering the hereditary information in DNA and using it to
synthesize proteins.
1. Complete the following RNA strand and indicate how many bonds are formed
for each complementary pair:
[Date]
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25
pf26

Partial preview of the text

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BIOD 171 Microbiology Assessment Exam Questions with Correct

Answers

  1. A virus is classified as a microbe. True. Although viruses are not living and as such are not considered microorganisms, they can, however, be classified as microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses.
  2. True or False: The smallest biological unit of life is the molecule. False. The smallest biological unit of life is the cell.
  3. What are the 4 main types of macromolecules found in cells? Proteins, Lipids, Nucleic acids and Polysaccharide
  4. Proteins are formed from various combinations of __________ of which there are ____ known forms. Amino acids, 20
  5. How many amino acids are classified as being essential amino acids? 9
  6. What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles? There are two major types of nucleic acids: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid). Nucleic acids are chemical molecules that carry genetic information within the cell. DNA contains a vast amount of hereditary information and is responsible for the inheritable characteristics of living organisms. RNA is responsible for deciphering the hereditary information in DNA and using it to synthesize proteins.
  7. Complete the following RNA strand and indicate how many bonds are formed for each complementary pair:

3’ GGUCAUCG 5’

5’ CC AGC 3’

3’ GGUCAUCG 5’

5’ CCAGUAGC 3’

There are 2 bonds formed between A and U, and 3 bonds between G and C.

  1. The plasma membrane (select all that are true): BD A. Only restricts movement of materials into the cell B. Is often a bilayer comprised of lipids C. Cannot prevent essential nutrients from escaping D. Contains hydrophobic tails pointing inward
  2. Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen atoms come together to form what primary macromolecule? Give an example. Polysaccharides. Glucose, sucrose and cellulose are all acceptable answers. True of False: The genetic material within a prokaryotic cell is contained within a membraneenclosed region. False. Only eukaryotic cells contain its genetic material within a nucleus True or False: Prokaryotic cells can be subdivided into Bacteria and Archaea. True Describe the 4 basic bacterial morphologies. Coccus (round/spherical), bacillus (rod), vibrio (curved rod) or spirillum (spiral/corkscrew).
  1. True or False: A defining characteristic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue layers. True.
  2. Cell walls are found in which of the following (select all that apply): A, B, C, E A. Plants B. Fungi C. Bacteria D. Mammalian cells E. Algae
  3. The function of the ribosome is (select all that apply): B A. Lipid synthesis B. Protein synthesis C. To produce energy (ATP) D. Protein modification and distribution E. Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes 1. True or False: Metabolism is a controlled set of biochemical reactions that occur in living organisms in order to maintain life. True. 2. True or False: Enzymes are polysaccharides that catalyze chemical reactions. False. Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions.
  1. What are usually metal ions known to assists enzyme during the catalysis reaction? Cofactors are usually metal ions and assist enzyme during the catalysis reaction.
  2. Define anabolism .Anabolism is the process of building up or biosynthesis of macromolecules from small molecular units into much larger complexes.
  3. In order to convert proteins into amino acids which metabolic process would be active? Catabolism would be active as proteins are made up of amino acids. Therefore the process described (proteins into amino acids) is the breakdown, or catabolism of protein.
  4. Describe the energy transfer process relative to both ATP and ADP .ATP has the energy (phosphate group) to donate while ADP can accept energy in the form of a phosphate group. Thus, ATP can be reduced (ATP →ADP + Pi) while ADP can be built into ATP (ADP + Pi →ATP).
  5. An organism that derives its energy (generates ATP) from photons of light is called a _________? Phototrophic microorganism. An organism that derives its energy by removing electrons from elemental sulfur would be classified as a __________? Lithotroph
  6. A reactive intermediate would be present in which phosphorylation process? B A. Photophosphorylation B. Substrate-level phosphorylation C. Oxidative phosphorylation
  1. True or False. The reactants of the TCA cycle directly enter and fuel the electron transport system. False. The products of the TCA cycle (reduced electron carriers) enter and drive the production of ATP via the electron transport system.
  2. In the absence of glucose, which of the following can be used as alternative energy sources? Select all that apply. A, C, D can all be used as alternative energy sources A. Lactose B. Nucleic acidsC. Carbohydrates D. Lipids.
  3. For the catabolism of proteins and lipids, which of the following enzymes are used? Select all that apply. B and D. Proteases breakdown proteins while lipases breakdown lipids. A. Ligases B. Proteases C. Transferases D. Lipases
  4. True or False. The β-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fatty acid chains of lipids. True
    1. True or False. Plants, algae and bacteria all contain chloroplasts. False. Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants only.
  1. The process of carbon fixation begins with which of the following reactants: select all that apply. A, C, D, and E. Carbon fixation uses the ATP/NADPH produced during light reactions to convert CO2 and H2O into useful sources of energy (carbohydrates). A. ATP B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate C. CO 2 D. NADPH E. H 2 O
  2. What is one of the main functions of light reactions? Similar to the electron transport chain, one of its main functions is to generate a proton concentration gradient to generate ATP.
  3. True or False: Dark reactions can occur in the presence or absence of light. True. The term ‘dark reactions’ (also known as the Calvin Cycle) simply denotes the second stage in photosynthesis—dark reactions do not actually require darkness in order to occur.
  4. How many turns (or repititions) of the Calvin Cycle are required to generate one molecule of glucose? Six.

F- Isomerases **1E 1. A + B → A-B Ligases 2A 2. A-B → A + B Lyases 3C 3. A —

  • B → A + B — Oxioreductaces 4B 4. Ab + C → A + Cb Transferases**
  1. A micrometer is defined as A. 10 - B. 10 - C.10- D. 10- B. A micrometer is one-millionth of a meter.
  2. True or False: A nanometer is longer than a micrometer. False. A nanometer is 1,000 times smaller than a micrometer.
  3. Resolution and contrast are two critical factors that influence your ability to see an object. Explain each. Resolution refers to the distance between two objects at which the objects still can be seen as separate. Poor or low resolution means two (or more) objects may appear as one.

Contrast is the difference in light absorbance between two objects. Poor contrast gives a high background and makes the visualization of multiple objects difficult. For instance, trying to identify 2 dark colored objects at night (low light = low contrast) versus the same 2 objects in the middle of a sunny afternoon (bright light against 2 dark objects = high contrast).

  1. Assuming a constant (non-adjustable) light source power, identify the part of the microscope you would adjust to limit the amount of light entering the microscope. Select all that apply. A. Objective B. Condenser C. Iris diaphragm D. Eye piece C. The iris controls the amount of light that passes through the sample and into the objective lens. Thus, it can be adjusted (opened or closed) to alter the amount of light.
  2. What is the total magnification (relative to your eye) of a sample imaged with a 60x objective and a 10x eyepiece? Show your math. 60 x 10 = 600x magnification
    1. True or False: A cell that is adherent, flat (thin) and unstained is easily identified using bright field microscopy.
  1. This type of microscope is used to greatly increase the contrast between samples and backgroundby reflecting light off of the specimen. Dark Field
  2. This type of microscope is capable of capturing images in multiple focal planes, rendering a specimen in 3D Confocal
  3. Gram-Positive cells appear _______ in color due to a ______ peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall. Purple; Thick
  4. Gram-Negative cells appear _______ in color due to a ______ peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall. Pink; Thin
  5. True or False: The distinguishing characteristic of Gram-Negative bacteria is the presence of LPS in the outer membrane. True.
  1. True or False: If you wish to study the motility of an organism you cannot heat fix, but you can chemically fix the specimen. False. Both heat and chemical fixation strategies will kill the cell, making motility observations impossible.
  2. You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process. Simple stain. You could use any of the following: methylene blue, crystal violet, safranin or fuschin.
  3. You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide. You would expect to see red cells (TB+) on a blue background (TB negative).
  4. True or False: A Giemsa stain can be used to determine the presence of pathogenic bacteria. True. Pathogenic bacteria would appear pink while non- pathogenic bacteria would appear purple.
  5. True or False: Differential media is best suited for distinguishing between two similar species of bacteria. True. Growth media does not contain restrictive factors, while selective media is best used to encourage the growth of one microbe while simultaneously discouraging the growth of the other. Since two similar species of microbes are being studied they must be differentiated under similar but just slightly different conditions (differential media).
  6. A researcher is asked to determine if a sample contains Neisseria meningitides. Knowing Neisseria meningitides is slow growing and other foreign
  1. True or False: Chocolate agar gets its brown color from cocoa to produce an enriched media. False. Chocolate (cocoa) is never added to the media. The name is derived simply based on the color that actually comes from the presence of ‘cooked’ (lysed) red blood cells in the media.
  2. A researcher is studying a strain of E. coli currently growing on a MacConkey plate. However, the researcher can’t remember if E. coli is Gram- Positive or Gram-Negative. Would a Gram stain be necessary to confirm? Why or why not? No. A Gram stain would not be necessary, as only GramNegative microbes will grow on MacConkey agar. Thus, E. coli is a Gram-Negative microbe.
  3. In an attempt to detect the presence of the pathogenic strain of E. coli O157:H7, a researcher spread a culture onto a MacConkey agar with failed results. What type of agar should they (correctly) try next? Why? The microbe should be plated on SMAC (Sorbitol-MacConkey agar) as it is specifically formulated to detect O157:H7. Pathogenic E. coli (O157:H7) cannot ferment sorbitol while non-pathogenic E. coli can ferment both soribitol and lactose. Therefore, colonies that ferment (acidic conditions; non-pathogenic) can be differentiated from non-fermenters (neutral to basic conditions; pathogenic).
  4. What is the Gram status (Positive or Negative) of microbes growing on Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar plates? Gram-Negative. EMB plates specifically restrict the growth of GramPositive bacteria.
  5. Mannitol salt agar will turn what color in the presence of the pathogenic strain Staphylococcus aureus? Yellow. Pathogenic Staph aureus will turn the agar from red to yellow.
  1. What is the process of spreading a bacterial culture onto a petri dish? Plating.
  2. In order to visual individual colonies of bacteria would you culture your sample in a liquid media oron a solid (agar) media? Why? Solid (agar) media. The primary advantage is that cells are held into place. When grown in a nutrient broth, bacterial cells can multiply but are free to move around in solution. When grown on agar within a petri dish the fixed in such as way as to form colonies.
  3. True or False? The visualization of colonies on a petri dish represents bacterial cells that have often multiplied a million times over. True. To form a bacterial colony the initial cell must have multiplied many times over, often greater than a million, in order for the naked eye to resolve it.
  4. True or False. The purpose of a quadrant streak is to produce individual colonies of a bacterial population. True. The purpose of the quadrant streak is to generate individual colonies such that a single (pure) bacterial sample can be isolated.
  5. A dilution gradient is formed when carrying out what generalize plating strategy? A quadrant (aka phase-dilution) streak. The resulting gradient should always contain within it the growth of individual colonies.
  6. In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the highest concentration of bacteria, P2 or P4? P2 (Phase 2) would contain a higher concentration of bacteria than Phase 4 (P4). The phases rank (from highest to lowest), P1 > P2 > P3 > P4.

Although blood agar is considered a differential media, it is, most importantly, a non-selective media. Given the alternatives, this is the best option.

  1. Define the concept of universal precautions. Universal precautions means any and all samples, whether known or unknown, are to be treated as potentially hazardous (or pathogenic) materials.
  2. List at least 3 observations a researcher would be sure to note while assessing an unknown microbial sample A lab researcher would be certain to note:1. Size and shape2. Any observable motility3. Gram status (positive or negative)4. The presence of any chemical reactions5. Changes in color localized to the organism or the surrounding media6. Capture (or draw) images of any of the characteristics described above
  3. While observing an unknown sample of limited amounts, a researcher must determine the following observations: (1) the presence of any motility and (2) its Gram status using the same sample—the liquid sample cannot be divided. Which would you determine first and why? You must determine motility before determining the Gram status. Motility requires a wet mount, while Gram staining requires heat fixing the sample. If one were to begin with the Gram stain the heat fixation process would kill the organism, making any observations regarding motility impossible. The correct approach would be to place the liquid culture on a glass slide and determine its motility status. Next, the same liquid culture can be heat fixed and Gram stained.
  4. A facultative anaerobe is a microorganism capable of growth under what conditions? A facultative anaerobe is capable of growth under aerobic (with oxygen) and anaerobic (without oxygen) conditions.
  1. As Streptococcus is catalase negative would it thrive or die in the presence of peroxides? Why? Streptococcus would not survive in the presence of peroxides —it is unable to breakdown peroxides (catalase negative). Left unchecked, peroxides would damage the cellular integrity of Strep causing lysis/cell death.
  2. Streptococcus is most often streaked onto C A. Chocolate agar B. EMB agar C. Blood agar D. Spirit Blue agar 3.True or False. The Lancefield groups are used to subdivide antigenic groups of gamma-hemolytic Streptococcus. False. The Lancefield groupings are used to subdivide beta-hemolytic Strep.
  3. Greater than 90% of all human streptococcal infections belong to: C (group A) A. Group B B. Group D C. Group A D. Group C