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A.T.I Comprehensive Predictor Exam 2025 Prep Book: Complete Nursing Review, Exams of Nursing

A.T.I Comprehensive Predictor Exam 2025 Prep Book: Complete Nursing Review with Practice Tests, Answer Rationales, and Proven Strategies to Pass the NCLEX Predictor Exam

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2024/2025

Available from 07/16/2025

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ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam 2025 Prep
Book: Complete Nursing Review with Practice
Tests, Answer Rationales, and Proven Strategies
to Pass the NCLEX Predictor Exam
Here are the multi-choice questions with rationales and indicated correct answers:
Question 1
A nurse in an emergency department completes an assessment on an adolescent client
that has conduct disorder. The client threatened suicide to a teacher at school. Which
of the following statements should the nurse include in the assessment?
a) Tell me about your siblings.
b) Tell me what kind of music you like.
c) Tell me how often do you drink alcohol.
d) Tell me about your school schedule.
Correct Answer: c) Tell me how often do you drink alcohol.
Rationale:
a) Tell me about your siblings: While family dynamics can be relevant, it's not the
most immediate or direct question when assessing an adolescent who has
threatened suicide, especially in the context of conduct disorder where
substance use can be a significant contributing factor.
b) Tell me what kind of music you like: This is a general question and not directly
pertinent to the immediate safety assessment following a suicide threat.
c) Tell me how often do you drink alcohol: Adolescents with conduct disorder
often engage in high-risk behaviors, including substance abuse, which
significantly increases the risk of suicidal ideation and attempts. Assessing
substance use is crucial for safety planning and identifying precipitating factors.
d) Tell me about your school schedule: While school can be a stressor, asking
about the schedule doesn't directly address the immediate risk factors or
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Download A.T.I Comprehensive Predictor Exam 2025 Prep Book: Complete Nursing Review and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam 2025 Prep

Book: Complete Nursing Review with Practice

Tests, Answer Rationales, and Proven Strategies

to Pass the NCLEX Predictor Exam

Here are the multi-choice questions with rationales and indicated correct answers: Question 1 A nurse in an emergency department completes an assessment on an adolescent client that has conduct disorder. The client threatened suicide to a teacher at school. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the assessment? a) Tell me about your siblings. b) Tell me what kind of music you like. c) Tell me how often do you drink alcohol. d) Tell me about your school schedule. Correct Answer: c) Tell me how often do you drink alcohol. Rationale:

  • a) Tell me about your siblings: While family dynamics can be relevant, it's not the most immediate or direct question when assessing an adolescent who has threatened suicide, especially in the context of conduct disorder where substance use can be a significant contributing factor.
  • b) Tell me what kind of music you like: This is a general question and not directly pertinent to the immediate safety assessment following a suicide threat.
  • c) Tell me how often do you drink alcohol: Adolescents with conduct disorder often engage in high-risk behaviors, including substance abuse, which significantly increases the risk of suicidal ideation and attempts. Assessing substance use is crucial for safety planning and identifying precipitating factors.
  • d) Tell me about your school schedule: While school can be a stressor, asking about the schedule doesn't directly address the immediate risk factors or

potential contributing factors to the suicide threat in the same way as substance use. Question 2 A nurse is observing bonding between a client and her newborn. Which of the following actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene? a) Holding the newborn in a face position. b) Asking the father to change the newborn's diaper. c) Requesting the nurse take the newborn to the nursery so she can rest. d) Viewing the newborn's actions to be uncooperative. Correct Answer: d) Viewing the newborn's actions to be uncooperative. Rationale:

  • a) Holding the newborn in a face position: This is a normal and often encouraged bonding behavior (en face position facilitates eye contact). No intervention is needed.
  • b) Asking the father to change the newborn's diaper: This indicates shared parental responsibility and involvement, which is a positive sign for family bonding and support. No intervention is needed.
  • c) Requesting the nurse take the newborn to the nursery so she can rest: It is common and acceptable for new mothers to need rest, especially after delivery. This does not indicate a bonding issue and should be accommodated. No intervention is needed.
  • d) Viewing the newborn's actions to be uncooperative: Attributing negative intent or "uncooperativeness" to a newborn's normal behaviors (e.g., crying, fussing) can be a red flag for potential bonding difficulties, parental frustration, or a lack of understanding of infant cues. This warrants further assessment and potential intervention to promote positive parent-infant interaction. Question 3 A nurse is caring for a client who is taking levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should indicate that the medication is effective? a) Weight loss.
  • a) Contact provider if the cord still turns black: It is normal for the umbilical cord stump to dry, shrivel, and turn black as it prepares to fall off. This is generally not a cause for concern unless there are signs of infection.
  • b) Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily: Current recommendations are to keep the cord dry and exposed to air, or to clean with plain water and mild soap if visibly soiled. Hydrogen peroxide is generally not recommended as it can delay healing and cause irritation.
  • c) Keep the cord dry until it falls off: This is the most important and current recommendation for umbilical cord care. Keeping the cord dry promotes drying and natural separation, reducing the risk of infection.
  • d) The cord stump will fall off in five days: While some cords fall off around 5 days, the typical timeframe for the umbilical cord stump to fall off is usually between 7 and 21 days (1-3 weeks). Stating it will fall off in five days is too specific and may lead to unnecessary concern if it takes longer. Question 5 A nurse is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output? a) Shivering. b) Oliguria. c) Bradypnea. d) Constricted pupils. Correct Answer: b) Oliguria. Rationale:
  • a) Shivering: Shivering in the PACU is often due to hypothermia (a common post- anesthesia effect) or a response to pain. While it increases oxygen demand, it is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output.
  • b) Oliguria: Oliguria (decreased urine output, typically less than 0.5 mL/kg/hr or 30 mL/hr in adults) is a significant indicator of decreased cardiac output. When cardiac output is low, renal perfusion is reduced, leading to decreased urine production as the kidneys try to conserve fluid.
  • c) Bradypnea: Bradypnea (slow respiratory rate) can be caused by various factors, including residual anesthetic effects, opioid administration, or

neurological issues. While it can impact oxygenation, it is not a primary or direct indicator of decreased cardiac output.

  • d) Constricted pupils: Constricted pupils (miosis) can be caused by certain medications (e.g., opioids), neurological conditions, or eye drops. They are not a direct or common indicator of decreased cardiac output. Question 6 A nurse is assisting with mass casualty triage: explosion at a local factory. Which of the following client should the nurse identify as the priority? a) A client who has massive head trauma. b) A client has full-thickness burns to the face and trunk. c) A client with indications of hypovolemic shock. d) A client with open fracture of the lower extremity. Correct Answer: c) A client with indications of hypovolemic shock. Rationale: In mass casualty triage (e.g., using the START method), the priority is given to clients who have immediate life-threatening conditions that are treatable and can benefit from rapid intervention, often referred to as "red tag" or immediate.
  • a) A client who has massive head trauma: While severe, massive head trauma often indicates a non-salvageable injury in a mass casualty setting, or one that requires significant resources beyond what can be immediately provided, making them a lower priority (expectant or black tag) for survival benefit.
  • b) A client has full-thickness burns to the face and trunk: Extensive full-thickness burns, especially to the face (airway compromise risk) and trunk, are severe but often require prolonged and intensive care. In a mass casualty scenario, they might be triaged as delayed (yellow tag) or expectant (black tag) depending on the overall resource availability and other injuries.
  • c) A client with indications of hypovolemic shock: Hypovolemic shock (e.g., from significant bleeding) is an immediate life-threatening condition that is treatable with rapid interventions like fluid resuscitation. These clients have the highest chance of survival with immediate care and are thus a top priority (red tag).
  • d) A client with an open fracture of the lower extremity: An open fracture, while serious and requiring eventual surgical intervention to prevent infection and promote healing, is not immediately life-threatening in the same way as

A nurse is caring for a client who just received the first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention? a) Place cardiac monitoring. b) Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level. c) Provide standby assist with the client from bed. d) Encourage foods high in potassium. Correct Answer: c) Provide standby assist with the client from bed. Rationale:

  • a) Place cardiac monitoring: While monitoring vital signs is important, routine cardiac monitoring is not typically indicated for the first dose of lisinopril unless the client has pre-existing cardiac conditions that warrant it. The primary concern is related to blood pressure.
  • b) Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor and does not directly affect oxygen saturation. While some clients may develop a cough, it's not an acute effect that would necessitate immediate oxygen saturation monitoring for the first dose.
  • c) Provide standby assist with the client from bed: Lisinopril, being an antihypertensive medication, can cause a "first-dose phenomenon" leading to significant orthostatic hypotension (a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up). This can cause dizziness and increase the risk of falls. Therefore, providing standby assist is crucial to ensure client safety when ambulating or changing positions after the first dose.
  • d) Encourage foods high in potassium: Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia (increased potassium levels) because it inhibits aldosterone, which normally promotes potassium excretion. Therefore, clients taking lisinopril should be cautioned about foods high in potassium, not encouraged to consume them. Question 9 A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. Which of the following should the nurse expect? a) Fetal hypoxia. b) Abruptio placentae.

c) Post-maturity. d) Head Compression. Correct Answer: d) Head Compression. Rationale:

  • a) Fetal hypoxia: Fetal hypoxia is typically associated with late decelerations (due to uteroplacental insufficiency) or prolonged decelerations. Early decelerations are generally not indicative of hypoxia.
  • b) Abruptio placentae: Abruptio placentae (premature separation of the placenta) is a serious obstetric emergency often characterized by painful vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and can lead to fetal distress, sometimes seen as late decelerations or a significant change in baseline heart rate, but not specifically early decelerations.
  • c) Post-maturity: Post-maturity refers to a pregnancy extending beyond 42 weeks. While post-mature fetuses can be at risk for various complications, early decelerations are not a specific indicator of post-maturity.
  • d) Head Compression: Early decelerations are a benign finding on fetal monitoring and are caused by vagal nerve stimulation due to compression of the fetal head during uterine contractions. They mirror the contraction and are typically uniform in shape. No intervention is usually required beyond continued monitoring. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as in an indication for hemodialysis? a) glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/ minute b) BUN 16 mg/DL c) serum magnesium 1.8 mg mg/dl d) Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL - - correct ans- - a) glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/ minute A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. The following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take? a) Placed infant under radiant warmer b) Move the probe site every 3 hours

A nurse is obtaining the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for isosorbide monotitrate. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a contraindication to medication? a) Glaucoma b) Hypertension c) Polycythemia d) Migraine headaches - - correct ans- - a) Glaucoma The nurses is caring for a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction. Which following intervention should the nurse include in the point of care? a) Draw a troponin level every four hours b) Performance EKG every 12 hours c) Plant oxygen tent fell over minutes via rebreather mask d) Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult - - correct ans- - d) Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult A Nurses caring for client who has breast cancer and has been covering receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should nurse report to provider? a) WBC 3,000/mm b) Hemoglobin 14 g/dl c) Platelet 250,000/mm d) aPTT 30 seconds - - correct ans- - a) WBC 3,000/mm Home health nurse is carefully planned for Alzheimer's disease. To the following action should the nurse include in the plan of care a) Place a daily calendar in the kitchen b) Replace button clothing with zippered items

c) Replace the carpet with hardwood floors d) Create variation in daily routine - - correct ans- - a) Place a daily calendar in the kitchen Nurse is performing change of shift assessments on 4 clients. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to provider first? a) The client was cystic fibrosis and has a thick productive clock and reports thirst b) Client who has gastroenteritis and is lethargic and confused c) The Client has diabetes mellitus has morning fasting Legal cost of 185 mg over deal d) The client was sick of signing it reports pain 15 minutes after receiving oral analgesic -

  • correct ans- - b) Client who has gastroenteritis and is lethargic and confused A nurse is caring for a client was in the second trimester of pregnancy and asks how to treat constipation. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate? a) Decrease taking vitamins and supplements to every other day b) Eat 15 g of fiber per day c) Consume 48 ounces of water each day d) Drink hot water with lemon juice each morning when you wake up - - correct ans- - d) Drink hot water with lemon juice each morning when you wake up A nurse is caring for a client who is preparing his advance directives. Which is the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advanced directives? select all that apply a) I can't change my instructions once a minute b) My doctor will need to approve my advance directives c) I need an attorney to witness my signature on the advance directives d) I have the right to refuse treatment

A nurse observes an AP providing care to a child who is in skeletal traction. Which of the following action requires intervention? a) Providing a high protein snack b) Assisting the child to reposition c) Placing weights as a child's bed d) Massaging pressure points-causes skin breakdown - - correct ans- - c) Placing weights as a child's bed A nurse is planning to delegate to an AP the fasting blood glucose testing for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following action should the nurse take? a) Determine if the AP is qualified to perform the test. b) Help the AP performed the blood glucose test c) Assign the AP to ask the client is taking his diabetic medication today d) Have AP check the medical record for prior blood glucose test results - - correct ans-

  • a) Determine if the AP is qualified to perform the test. A nurse is assessing client brought to the hospital psychiatric emergency services by a law enforcement officer. The client has disorganized, incoherent speech with loose associations and religious content. You should recognize the signs and symptoms as being consistent with which of the following? a) Alzheimer's disease b) Schizophrenia c) Substance intoxication d) Depression - - correct ans- - b) Schizophrenia

A nurse is caring for a child who has infectious mononucleosis.. Which of the following findings are associated with this diagnosis? Select all that apply a) splenomegaly b) Koplik spots c) Malaise d) Vertigo e) Sore throat - - correct ans- - a) splenomegaly c) Malaise e) Sore throat Nurse is performing dressing change for client was a sacral wound using negative pressure wound therapy. Which The following actions should the nurse take first? a) Apply skin preparation to wound edges. b) Normal saline c) Don sterile gloves d) Determine pain level - - correct ans- - d) Determine pain level A nurses caring for client recovery from the bowel surgery who has nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction. Which the following assessment findings should indicate to the nurse that the NG tube may not be functioning properly? a) Drainage fluid is greenish-yellow b) aspirate pH of 3 c) Abdominal rigidity d) air bubbles noted in the NG tube - - correct ans- - c) Abdominal rigidity

c) A client who is acute kidney injury and urine with a low specific gravity d) The client who has oral cancer and reports a sore on his gums - - correct ans- - a) The client has surgical hypoparathyroidism and positive Trousseau's sign Nurses caring for a client was congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions for the provider should the nurse anticipate? a) Call the provider to clients respiratory rate is less 18/min b) Give the client 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9 sodium chloride over 1 hr c) Give the client enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily d) Call the provider if the clients pulse rate is less than 80/min - - correct ans- - c) Give the client enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for sertraline to treat depression. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the medication treatment plan? a) I will be able starting this medication with feel better b) I can expect to urinate frequently while on this medication c) I understand I may experience difficulty sleeping on this medication d) I should decrease my sodium intake while on this medication - - correct ans- - c) I understand I may experience difficulty sleeping on this medication A nurse has been caring for a female client who has bruises on her arms that she explains are a result of physical abuse by her husband. The client states, "I don't know how much longer I can take this, but I'm afraid he'll really hurt me if I leave. "Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?" a) Offer to speak to the client's husband regarding his abuse behavior. b) Help the client to recognize the signs of escalation of abuse behavior

c) Assist the client to identify personal behaviors that trigger abusive behavior d) Assist the client to Reports abusive behavior to the proper authority - - correct ans- - b) Help the client to recognize the signs of escalation of abuse behavior A client was having suicidal thoughts tells the nurse "It just does not seem worth it anymore. Why not end my misery?" Which of the following responses for the nurses appropriate? a) Why do you think your life is not worth it anymore? b) Do you have a plan to end your life? c) I need to know what you mean my misery d) You can trust me and tell me what you're thinking - - correct ans- - b) Do you have a plan to end your life? A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect? a) Decreased level consciousness b) Unable to identify common objects c) Poor problem solving ability d) Preoccupation was somatic disturbances - - correct ans- - c) Poor problem solving ability A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following action should nurse take? There are 3 tabs that contain separate categories of data. a) Position the client with the affected extremity lower than the heart b) Administration of acetaminophen c) Massage the affected extremity every 4 hrs. d) Withhold heparin IV infusion - - correct ans- - d) Withhold heparin IV infusion

A nurse is caring for a client who has DVT. Which of the following instructions the nurse include in the plan of care? a) Live with the clients fluid intake to 1500 mL per day b) Massage place affected extremity to relieve pain c) Apply cold packs of clients affected extremity d) Elevate the client's affected extremity when in bed - - correct ans- - d) Elevate the client's affected extremity when in bed A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin IV for augmentation of labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a nine seconds duration in the fetal heart rate is 170 to 180/minute. Which of the following actions should nurse take? a) Discontinue oxytocin infusion b) Increased oxytocin infusion c) Decreased oxytocin infusion d) Maintain oxytocin infusion - - correct ans- - a) Discontinue oxytocin infusion A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor and at 38 wks of gestation to the maternal newborn unit. The client has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which of the following questions is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client? a) Have your membranes ruptured? b) How far apart are your contractions? c) Do you have any active lesions? d) Are you positive for beta strap? - - correct ans- - c) Do you have any active lesions?

Nurse is providing teaching for child prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a) Take with meals b) Take at bedtime c) Take with a glass of milk d) Take with a glass of orange juice - - correct ans- - d) Take with a glass of orange juice Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first? a) A 6 year old client whose left shoulder is dislocated b) A 26 year old client for sickle cell disease and a severe joint pain c) A 76 year old client was confused, febrile and has foul smelling urine d) A 50- year old client who has slurred speech, is disoriented, and reports a headache -

  • correct ans- - d) A 50- year old client who has slurred speech, is disoriented, and reports a headache A nurse is completing a dietary assessment for client who is Jewish and observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect to find? a) Leavened bread maybe eaten during Passover. b) Shellfish is commonly consumed in the diet. c) Meat and dairy products are eaten separately. d) Fasting from meat occurs during Hanukkah. - - correct ans- - c) Meat and dairy products are eaten separately. A nurse is in an ER caring for client of multiple wounds due to a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following interventions are appropriate? Select all that apply