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NASM Practice Exam Multiple Choice
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Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect? Select one: a. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. b. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods. c. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. d. Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. - ✔✔Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. Which of the following muscle groups work both eccentrically and concentrically in the sagittal plane during a squat? Select one: a. Quadriceps b. Gluteus medius c. Biceps brachii d. Adductor longus - ✔✔Quadriceps How should the back be positioned when performing a bird dog exercise? Select one: a. Anterior pelvic tilt b. Kyphotic positioning c. In a neutral position d. Excessive lordotic position - ✔✔In a neutral position What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise? Select one:
a. Land b. Jump c. Gait d. Stabilize - ✔✔Jump What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise? Select one: a. Thumbs pointing up b. Palms facing down c. Thumbs pointing down d. Palms facing each other - ✔✔Thumbs pointing up What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target? Select one: a. Quadratus lumborum and erector spinae b. Levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoid c. Rectus femoris and biceps femoris d. Infraspinatus and teres minor - ✔✔Infraspinatus and teres minor Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space? Select one: a. Vestibular system b. Hearing system c. Somatosensory system d. Visual system Feedback - ✔✔Visual system What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change?
d. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power - ✔✔Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible? Select one: a. Agility b. Power c. Speed d. Quickness - ✔✔Speed What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly? Select one: a. Barbell clean b. Step-ups c. Depth jump d. Single-leg squat - ✔✔Step-ups How is a general warm-up best defined? Select one: a. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following. b. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following. c. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following. d. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following. Feedback - ✔✔Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
What is defined as the force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it? Select one: a. Acceleration force b. Stabilization force c. Ground reaction force d. Deceleration force - ✔✔Ground reaction force Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities? Select one: a. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous. b. Proprioceptive modalities should be used only with the most advanced clients. c. Proprioceptive modalities have not been shown to help improve balance. d. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities has been shown to be safe and effective. - ✔✔Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous. Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement? Select one: a. Soccer throw b. Two-arm push press c. Front medicine ball oblique throw d. Medicine ball chest pass - ✔✔Two-arm push press Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual's true metabolic function? Select one: a. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test b. YMCA 3-minute step test c. Rockport walk test d. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test
c. Pyruvate d. Fatty acids - ✔✔Pyruvate What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called beta cells) stop producing insulin? Select one: a. Type 2 b. Prediabetes c. Type 1 d. Gestational - ✔✔Type 1 What is the most accurate description of motor control? Select one: a. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements b. The motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli c. The integration of motor control processes through practice d. The cumulative changes in motor behavior over time, throughout the life span - ✔✔The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system? Select one: a. Somatosensory system b. Vestibular system c. Visual system d. Auditory system - ✔✔Somatosensory system What is sarcopenia? Select one: a. Lower than normal bone mineral density
b. Age-related loss in bone mineral density c. Chronic inflammation of the joints d. Age-related loss of muscle tissue - ✔✔Age-related loss of muscle tissue Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer? Select one: a. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments. b. Core training poses serious risks to the vertebral column. c. Balance training poses serious risks to the hips and pelvis. d. Resistance training is contraindicated for clients with diagnosed cancer. - ✔✔Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments. Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus? Select one: a. Ball cobra b. Calf raise c. Standing dumbbell lateral raise d. Single-leg dumbbell scaption - ✔✔Calf raise Stored energy from an efficiently functioning stretch-shortening cycle is released during which muscle action? Select one: a. Isometric b. Concentric c. Eccentric d. Isokinetic - ✔✔Concentric Hypertension is categorized by a blood pressure greater than what measurement? Select one:
Select one: a. Dumbbell lat row b. Seated abdominal crunch machine c. Elastic band woodchop d. Suspended chest press - ✔✔Elastic band woodchop Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility? Select one: a. Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods b. Ability to stretch in small increments c. Ability to stretch only one muscle d. Altered movement patterns - ✔✔Altered movement patterns Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following? Select one: a. Pulmonary hypoplasia b. Hypoxia c. Pneumonia d. Dyspnea - ✔✔Dyspnea For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2? Select one: a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week b. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week d. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week - ✔✔Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described? Select one: a. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted b. A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle c. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary d. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint - ✔✔A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes? Select one: a. 15 to 60 seconds b. 90 to 120 seconds c. Less than 15 seconds d. 60 to 90 seconds - ✔✔15 to 60 seconds What causes coronary heart disease? Select one: a. Cirrhosis b. Osteoporosis c. Atherosclerosis d. Tuberculosis - ✔✔Atherosclerosis You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ? Select one: a. 5 to 7 times per week b. 1 to 3 times per week
b. Deceleration c. Amortization d. Acceleration - ✔✔Deceleration During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Concentric c. Amortization d. Stabilization - ✔✔Amortization A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in? Select one: a. Preparation b. Maintenance c. Precontemplation d. Action - ✔✔Preparation What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout? Select one: a. 30 seconds b. 0 seconds c. 60 to 120 seconds d. 5 minutes - ✔✔60 to 120 seconds
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion? Select one: a. Dynamic stretching b. Static stretching c. Active stretching d. Self-myofascial techniques - ✔✔Self-myofascial techniques Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (Power Training) superset? Select one: a. Stability ball push-up b. Dumbbell shoulder press c. Front medicine ball oblique throw d. Lat pulldown - ✔✔Front medicine ball oblique throw What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins? Select one: a. Peptide bonds b. Essential and nonessential amino acids c. Carbon molecules d. Essential amino acids only - ✔✔Essential and nonessential amino acids Which of the following is a ketone body? Select one: a. Glycogen b. Lactic acid c. Acetoacetic acid d. Pyruvate - ✔✔Acetoacetic acid
d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction - ✔✔The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur? Select one: a. Acceleration b. Concentric c. Eccentric d. Amortization - ✔✔Eccentric Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? Select one: a. Davis's law b. Archimedes' principle c. Wolff's law d. Overload principle - ✔✔Davis's law In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1? Select one: a. Stage 4 training b. Stage 2 training c. Stage 3 training d. Stage 1 training - ✔✔Stage 2 training According to the "iceberg effect," which of the following training adaptations are considered "surface level"? Select one: a. Stability b. Proper movement
c. Endurance d. Mobility - ✔✔Endurance Which of the following is a component of quickness training? Select one: a. Assessment of visual stimuli b. Acceleration c. Speed d. Stride rate - ✔✔Assessment of visual stimuli What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1? Select one: a. Athletes or competitors who desire to improve speed or power during short but very-high-intensity bouts of work b. More serious exercisers seeking to expand the capacity for both aerobic and anaerobic work c. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss d. New exercisers seeking to improve health markers like reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes - ✔✔Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive? Select one: a. Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius b. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals c. Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius d. Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors - ✔✔Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals Which is involved in frontside mechanics?
What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements? Select one: a. Stopping b. Imagery c. Cognitive fusion d. Reverse listing - ✔✔Reverse listing How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise? Select one: a. Thighs parallel to the ground b. As far as can be controlled without compensating c. Knees at 90 degrees of flexion d. Knees at 80 degrees of flexion - ✔✔As far as can be controlled without compensating What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy? Select one: a. 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5- 10 - 5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8 b. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills c. 10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills d. 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills - ✔✔4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills What best describes the all-or-nothing principle? Select one: a. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all. b. The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers c. All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do.
d. The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers - ✔✔A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all. What is plyometric training also known as? Select one: a. Resistance training b. Reactive training c. Stability training d. Strength training - ✔✔Reactive training What exercise equipment should clients always use when performing plyometric training, due to its high- impact nature? Select one: a. Uneven surfaces b. Balance plates c. Supportive shoes d. Soft mats - ✔✔Supportive shoes What anatomical heart structure is referred to as "the pacemaker of the heart"? Select one: a. Atrioventricular node b. Sinoatrial node c. Right bundle branch d. Intercalated discs - ✔✔Sinoatrial node How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes? Select one: a. 6 to 8 reps b. 1 or 2 reps
