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AMEDD BOLC Final Exam With Latest
Correct Answers 2025
What is the focus of the medical planning process? - correct answerQuickly develop a flexible, tactically sound, fully integrated and synchronized plan that supports the tactical commander's mission What are the responsibilities of the medical planner? - correct answer-Analyzes medical requirements before, during, and after all phases of an operation
- Conducts medical estimate (mission analysis) while tactical staff does MDMP ("parallel planning")
- Develops medical plan for each COA developed
- Considers medical support capability of each proposed COA
- Integrates the medical plan with the tactical plan What are the 10 AMEDD functional areas? - correct answer1.Medical Treatment 2.Evacuation & Medical Regulating 3.Preventive Medicine 4.Medical Logistics & Blood Management 5.Medical Mission Command 6.Hospitalization 7.Combat and Operational Stress Control 8.Laboratory 9.Veterinary
- Dental What are the 6 principles of the Army Health System? Describe them. - correct answer1.Conformity −Ensures comprehensive AHS support plan conforms to tactical plans −Medical assets are placed on the battlefield properly 2.Proximity−Provide medical support at the right time and place −Medical resources used as far forward as possible, without impeding operations 3.Flexibility−Ability to shift AHS resources to meet changing battlefield requirements −Effectively managing medical resources to benefit greatest number of Soldiers in AO
4.Mobility−AHS assets remain in supporting distance to support maneuvering forces
- Vehicle hardening equal to that of supported unit 5.Continuity−Patient moves through progressive, phased roles of care −Each Soldier gets care required to optimize outcome 6.Control−Resources efficiently employed −Ensure scope and quality of medical treatment meets professional standards and policies What is a medical estimate? - correct answerA continuous process which systematically examines all aspects of operations
- Produces task organization for decentralized execution and flexible medical support on the battlefield The main purpose of medical analysis should be to examine what seven areas? - correct answer1)Enemy situation 2)Friendly situation 3)Characteristics of the Area of Responsibility (AOR) 4)Strengths to be supported 5)Health of the command 6)Facts and Assumptions 7)Specified, Implied, and Essential Tasks What is analyzed in the Enemy Situation area of medical analysis? - correct answer- Strength and location
- Combat efficiency
- Capabilities
- Logistics
- EPW casualty estimate What is analyzed in the Friendly Situation area of medical analysis? - correct answer- Strength and disposition
- Combat efficiency
- Rear battle plan
- Weapon systems What is analyzed in the Characteristics of AOR area of medical analysis? - correct answer-Terrain - Obstacles, Avenues of Approach, Key Terrain, Observation and Fields of Fire, Cover and Concealment (OAKOC)
- Weather
- Flora and fauna What is analyzed in the Strengths to be Supported area of medical analysis? - correct answerMedical requirements for:
•Joint Service and Allied medical units •Host Nation medical resources In medical COA development, what must the medical plan do? - correct answerSupport the Commander's Intent and enable the accomplishment of the mission for the tactical COA developed What must be understood to develop the medical plan for each COA? - correct answer•Commander's Intent •Tactical Scheme of Maneuver for each COA •Task Organization of each COA •Results from medical estimate (previous step) •Specified, Implied, and Essential Tasks •Constraints and Limitations Unit Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) What actions are done during COA development? - correct answer-Array medical assets
- Determine Mission Command relationships for medical elements
- Develop concept of support sketch and synch matrix
- Maximize existing graphics and control measures
- Refine the casualty estimates Based on maneuver task organization for that COA Do estimates at smallest level (i.e. on each OBJECTIVE)
- Keep the six medical principles in mind: Conformity, Proximity, Flexibility, Mobility, Continuity, and Control Each medical COA must meet what criteria? - correct answer1. Suitable - Is it nested with the maneuver plan?
- Feasible - Can we do it?
- Acceptable - Acceptable risk?
- Complete - Includes all AMEDD functional areas? Each Medical COA should address medical support for what? - correct answer-Security Operations (Basic Reconnaissance Teams)
- Main / Supporting Attacks (close fight)
- Rear Operations (BDE Staging Area, FA units, etc.)
- Follow-on Operations (Stability OPS, Defense OPS, etc.) What are the advantages and disadvantages of ground evacuation? - correct answerAdvantages:
Least Affected by weather More reliable Disadvantages: Speed Obstacles Road networks Enemy Threats (IEDs, RPG, etc.) What are the advantages and disadvantages of air evacuation? - correct answerAdvantages: Airlift medical supplies and medical personnel Avoid Traversing difficult terrain Reduce patient discomfort Range and Speed Disadvantages: Adverse weather Enemy air-to-air threat Enemy Anti-aircraft weapons More difficult to get approval for use What is medical plan evacuation criteria based on? - correct answerCommander's Intent, and Commander's Guidance Describe the decision matrix - correct answer-A decision matrix provides the medical planner with a tool for evaluating COAs.
- Criteria is established based on mission, Commander's Intent, and Commander's Guidance
- Weights are assigned to each criteria in relation to its importance in accomplishment of the medical plan
- Scores are totaled with lowest number being best Once the commander selects a COA, what must the medical planner do? - correct answerRefine and publish the medical plan (medical appendix) Who does the medical planner coordinate with to publish the medical plan? - correct answerG/S-1 and G/S-4 (and any other key Sustainment planners) What are two critical products needed for the medical plan? - correct answerCOA Sketch (cartoon) Medical Synch Matrix
- Establish & Operate Battalion Aid Station (BAS) in direct support of battalion units What are the capabilities of the treatment squad? - correct answer•Provide Role I Medical Care using Medical Equipment Sets (MES) •Squad Consists of (2) Treatment Teams with the ability to conduct split operations What are the responsibilities of the BN Surgeon? - correct answer1.Provide Role I Medical Care: Triage, EMT, ATM, Sick Call, Combat Stress Control (As supervising physician) . 2.Advise the BN CDR regarding health of the command and medical threats 3.Coordinate and oversee all medical training to include: CLS, 68W Sustainment, and Medical CEUs 4.Operates Battalion Aid Station (BAS) in direct support of BN units 5.Assume role as the Medical PL as needed 6.Oversee field medical record maintenance What are the responsibilities of the BN PA? - correct answer1.Provides Role I Medical Care: Triage, EMT, ATM, Sick Call, Combat Stress Control (Assists physician). 2.Assists Surgeon in overseeing all medical training to include: CLS, 68W Sustainment, and Medical CEUs. 3.Operates Battalion Aid Station (BAS) in direct support of battalion units What are the responsibilities of the Evacuation Section? - correct answer1.Provide medical evacuation from CCP and enroute care to the BAS 2.Provide medical evac and enroute care on an area basis within the battalion AOR (Positioned at the BAS) 3.Work with the Line Medics/Trauma Specialists to assist company FHP/HSS plan 4.Conduct Class VIII Re-supply from BAS to maneuver companies 5.Maintain mission readiness of their ambulances What are the 3 types of ambulance vehicles? - correct answerM997 (FLA) M1133 (Stryker) M113 (Tank)
What are the responsibilities of the combat medic section? - correct answer1.Perform triage and EMT for the sick and wounded from the point of injury (POI) to the CCP 2.Coordinate medical evac from CCP to higher roles of care directed by unit leadership 3.Train non-medical Soldiers in first aid & CLS procedures 4.Coordinate and re-suppy combat lifesavers and other non-medical Soldiers within assigned unit Identify the mission command, number of soldiers, and subcomponents of a team, squad, platoon, and company. - correct answerTeam
- SGT/CPL
- 4 - 8
- 4 - 8 individuals Squad
- SGT/SSG
- 8 - 16
- 2 - 3 teams Platoon
- 2LT/1LT
- 16 - 44
- 3 - 5 squads Company
- CPT
- 60 - 200
- 3 - 5 platoons What elements make up a platoon? - correct answerPlatoon HQ (PL and PSG) and squads What elements make up a company? - correct answerHQ section (CDR and 1SG) and platoons What elements make up a battalion? - correct answer3-5 companies including HHC with HQ section, staff sections, and specialty platoons
- Mission command are LTC and CSM What are the differences between the three types of BCTs? - correct answer1. Armored BCT has Tanks and Mechanized Infantry/ Bradley Fighting Vehicle
- Stryker BCT has Stryker Vehicles (CBT Power like Bradleys, Tanks, Arty)
- Infantry BCT has some tactical vehicles but is mainly Infantryman on foot
What elements make up a Corps? - correct answer2-4 divisions, supporting brigades, theater sustainment command, and Marine Expeditionary Force or Multi-National Forces based on METT-TC What does the number and type of supporting brigades depend on? - correct answerThe mission What are the critical capabilities of Army Special Operations Forces (ARSOF)? - correct answer1. Special Warfare
- Unconventional warfare
- Foreign internal defense
- Psychological operations
- Civil-military operations
- Surgical Strike
- Counter-terrorism
- Counter-proliferation
- Direct action
- Recovery operations What is the role of staff? - correct answer•Helps commander understand, visualize, describe, and direct the battle •Establishes and maintains coordination and cooperation both internally & with staff of higher, lower, & adjacent units •Always focuses on helping the commander and subordinate units •Commander may delegate authority to his staff, but not responsibility •Exists at Battalion level and higher What are the different staff designators and when are they used? - correct answer-S for staff under a COL or LTC (BDE and BN)
- G for staff under a General Officer (DIV, Corps, Army)
- J for staff working for Joint Staff What is the role of the Chief of Staff/ Executive Officer (XO)? - correct answer•Commander's main assistant for directing, coordinating, supervising, and training the staff •Integrates & synchronizes the war fighting plans •Manages the Commander's Critical Information Requirements (CCIR)
•Ensures that the staff renders assistance to subordinate commanders and staffs, as necessary What is the role of S-1? - correct answer•Manning (Unit Personnel Strength) •Personnel Service Support •Manage organization & administration of the headquarters •Coordinates staff responsibilities for Special Staff Officers
- Adjutant General
- Surgeon
- Chaplain
- Staff Judge Advocate What is the role of S-2? - correct answerIntelligence
- Military intelligence
- Counter intelligence
- Security operations
- Intelligence training What is the role of S-3? - correct answerOperations •Training
- Prepares and supervises training •Operations & Plans
- Prepares, coordinates, authenticates, and distributes the command SOP, OPLAN, OPORD, FRAGOs, and WARNOs to which other staff sections contribute •Force Modernization What is the role of S-4? - correct answerLogistics •Logistical operations & plans •Supply •Maintenance •Transportation •Coordinates Mortuary Affairs Activities What is the role of S-5? - correct answerPlans •Planning operations for the mid- to long-range planning at division and higher •In conjunction with the G-3 (S-3), the G-5 prepares Annex A (Task Organization), Annex C (Operations), and Annex M (Assessment) to the operation order or operation plan
- Mission Command: Support CDRs in exercising authority and direction. Describe Company Trains - correct answerProvides tactical sustainment for a maneuver company
- Located in the company's rear area
- Company XO provides Mission Command
- Provides resupply to the company
- Senior medic provides medical support at the Company CCP Describe Combat Trains Command Post (CTCP) - correct answer•BN S-4 provides mission command •BN S-1/MEDO located in CTCP •The CTCP provides supplies, services, maintenance, & medical aid forward to the companies •Battalion Aid Station located at CTCP Describe the Field Trains Command Post (FTCP) - correct answer•HHC Commander provides Mission Command •FTCP is located in the BSA Provides supply, distribution and maintenance to their maneuver battalions Describe the role, mission command, and location of the Forward Support Company (FSC) - correct answer•FSC CDR provides mission command over field feeding, water, bulk fuel, general supply, ammunition, and field maintenance. •Tasked to support a maneuver battalion, however it falls under the Brigade Support Battalion •Located in the vicinity of the Combat Trains Command Post (CTCP) What is the role of the Brigade Support Battalion (BSB)? - correct answerProvides Tactical Sustainment for a BCT
- Supply and Distribution
- Maintenance (vehicles, weapons, electronics, etc.)
- Medical (Role II Medical Treatment Facility)
- One Forward Support Company per maneuver battalion What is the role of a Sustainment Brigade? - correct answerProvides logistical support mission command for Division and above:
- Supply (Food, Water, Fuel, Ammo, construction material, vehicles/weapons, etc.)
- Maintenance (vehicles, weapons, communication equipment, etc.)
- Transportation (provides trucks to move supplies & soldiers)
What is the mission of the medical company? - correct answerProvide Role II medical care to BNs with organic medical platoons. Provide Role I and II treatment to units without organic Army Health System (AHS) assets. What are the two types of medical companies? - correct answer1. Brigade Support Medical Company (BSMC)
- Assigned to a Brigade Support Battalion; supports a Brigade Combat Team (BCT)
- Medical Company Area Support (MCAS)
- Supports units without organic AHS assets What elements make up a BSB? - correct answer-HHC
- A Co. (Supply)
- B Co. (Maintenance)
- C Co. (Medical) What elements make up a Medical Company? - correct answer-HQ
- BDE Medical Supply Office Treatment PLT --treatment SQD --treatment SQD (area) --area support SQD --patient hold SQD
- Evac PLT --evac SQD (area)
- evac SQD (forward)
- Preventative maintenance
- Behavioral health What elements/positions are only found in MCASs, not BSMCs? - correct answerFood service element Maintenance element Communication element What does the preventative medicine section do? - correct answerProvides advice and consultation •Identify actual/potential health hazards, recommend corrective measures •Assist in training BCT soldiers in disease and non-battle injury prevention programs •Analyze and report medical surveillance information •Executes the BCT preventive medicine plan What does the behavioral health section do? - correct answer•Assist CDRs in preventing / controlling operational stress throughout BCT and for units within their assigned AOR.
What do Secure, Seize, and Clear mean? - correct answerSecure: preventing a unit, facility, or geographical location from being damaged or destroyed as a result of enemy action. Physical occupation NOT required Seize: Employ combat forces to occupy physically and to control a designated area. Clear: Remove all enemy forces and eliminate organized resistance within an assigned area. What do Delay and Disrupt mean? - correct answerDelay: When a force under pressure trades space for time by slowing down the enemy's momentum and inflicting maximum damage on enemy forces without becoming decisively engaged. Disrupt: Integrates direct and indirect fires, terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy's formation or tempo, interrupt his timetable, or cause enemy forces to commit prematurely or attack in piecemeal fashion. What do "On order" and "Be prepared" mean? - correct answerOn order: A mission which the force will accomplish at a later time; second in priority to any primary mission for planning; included in paragraph 2 of the OPORD. Be prepared: A mission which the force may accomplish at a later time; next in priority to any on order mission for planning; not included in paragraph 2 of the OPORD. What does Destroy and Defeat mean? - correct answerDestroy: To render the opposing force combat ineffective unless reconstituted. Physical destruction over psychological destruction Defeat: To render a force incapable of achieving its objectives. May or may not entail the destruction of any part of the enemy force. Psychological over physical destruction What does Screen mean? - correct answerTo provide early warning for the main body by maintaining contact with the opposing force
- Does not become decisively engaged (loses the ability to maneuver) What does Guard mean? - correct answerTo prevent ground observation, direct fire, or surprise attack on the main body force
- Can accept decisive engagement What does the frame of a symbol represent? - correct answerThe standard identity, physical domain, and status of the object being represented. What does the standard identity (shape) of a symbol represent? Give examples - correct answerThe relationship of the symbol being represented to friendly forces.
- Circle or Rectangle: Friend
- Diamond: Hostile or suspect
- Square: Neutral
- Quatrefoil: Unknown/pending What does the physical domain of a symbol represent? - correct answerPrimary mission area for the object being represented (i.e. air, space, land, sea surface). What does the status (type of line) on a symbol represent? - correct answerSolid line: Present status Dashed line: Anticipated, planned, or suspected status. a.Present or Confirmed - operational object exist at the location identified b.Planned or Anticipated - will in the future reside at that location c.Suspected - thought to reside at that location What does the color (fill) of a symbol represent? - correct answerProvides a redundant clue with regard to standard identity.
- If color is not used, the fill is transparent. 1)Friendly = blue or cyan 2)Enemy = red 3)Neutral = green 4)Unknown = yellow What do modifiers represent on symbols? - correct answerProvides additional information about the icon (unit, equipment, installation, or activity)
- Displayed inside of the frame What do amplifiers represent on symbols? - correct answerProvides additional information about the symbol
- Displayed outside the frame
- Only essential amplifiers should be used
- Arabic numerals are used, except for Corps (Roman numerals) Where are the section modifiers in a horizontal bounding octagon? - correct answerSection 1 modifier is above and Section 2 modifier is below the Main Icon Modifier Where are the section modifiers in a vertical bounding octagon? - correct answerSection 1 modifier is to the left and Section 2 modifier is to the right of the Main Icon Modifier What are the basic rules of building symbols? - correct answer•Existing standard symbols must be used •Must be usable in hand-drawn and computer-generated modes •Easily distinguishable •Friendly symbols must not use attributes that could be confused with enemy symbols •Distinguishable without color for use on a monochrome display •Have the primary symbol centered on or below the modifying symbols
What actions are done during the "Initiate Movement" step of TLPs during convoy planning? - correct answer-Identify and alleviate shortfalls.
- Determine fuel requirements.
- Determine requirements for all classes of supply.
- Coordinate load pickup.
- Coordinate movement preparations.
- Determine billeting and messing support.
- Coordinate procurement and maintenance of navigation assets.
- Evaluate environmental impact. What actions are done during the "Conduct Route Reconnaissance" step of TLPs during convoy planning? - correct answer-Ensure route will support vehicles
- Determine critical points, choke points, potential ambush sites
- Assess safety risks Route may be pre-determined What are the three types of reconnaissance? - correct answer• Map
- Aerial
- Physical What is the optimum size of a convoy and why? - correct answerAbout 30 vehicles
- Easier to control
- Minimal interference with civilian traffic
- Fewer stops for vehicle recovery
- Present a formidable presence What should be considered when determining the method of movement in a convoy? - correct answer-Speed
- Interval
- Formations
- Road occupation
- Frequent lane changes
- Specific lane or lane changes at critical points
- Middle of the road
- Treatment of civilian traffic How should a convoy be organized? - correct answer-Heaviest vehicle is the Pace Setter
- Gun truck in front of or behind the Pace Setter
- Gun truck behind the commander's vehicle
- Maintenance/Recovery Team near the trail
- ACC/Trail Officer and CLS in rearward vehicle
- Gun truck as trail vehicle
- Scatter additional CLS throughout the convoy
Where does the CDR ride in a convoy? - correct answerWherever he or she can effectively command and control the convoy based on METT-TC. How is information gathered for a convoy? - correct answer-Gather maps and overlays
- Review slides from recent briefings
- Gather publications
- Determine possible convoy routes
- Obtain intelligence data
- Analyze data
- Conduct route reconnaissance The Risk Assessment analyzes what 5 elements? - correct answer1)Assess terrorist threat 2)Determine critical assets 3)Determine asset vulnerabilities 4)Analyze the risk 5)Develop courses of action What are the 5 steps of a risk assessment? - correct answer1)Identify the hazards 2)Assess the hazards 3)Develop controls and make risk decisions 4)Implement controls 5)Supervise and evaluate What should be included in a strip map? - correct answer-Start point (SP)
- Release point (RP)
- Route numbers
- Town names
- Critical points
- Distance between points
- Total distance of the route
- North orientation
- The phrase "Not to scale" Who do you need to coordinate with to get route clearance? - correct answerBN S-3 or S- 4 What should you be prepared to proved to get a route clearance? - correct answer• Projected route
- Alternate routes
- Number of vehicles
- Number and description of tracked vehicles
- Description and amount of hazardous/sensitive cargo
- Weight/dimensions of largest/heaviest vehicle(s)
- Strip map
