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Aviation Quiz: Questions and Answers for Pilots, Exams of Aviation

A series of questions and answers related to aviation, covering topics such as drag divergence, physiological night's rest, window of circadian low, bank angle and induced drag, ils pilot authorization, pilot privileges, cyclone definition, dispatch release requirements, and more. It provides a valuable resource for pilots and aviation enthusiasts seeking to test their knowledge and understanding of aviation principles and regulations.

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2024/2025

Available from 02/03/2025

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"Drag divergence" usually occurs - 5% to 10% above the critical Mach number.
"Physiological night's rest" means - 0 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and
0700 at the crewmember's home base.
"Window of circadian low" means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between - 0200
- 0559
A bank angle of 15° will increase induced drag by about - =7%
A bank angle of 30° will increase induced drag by about - 33%
A bank angle of 45° will increase induced drag by - 100%
A bank angle of 60° will increase induced drag by - 300%
A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to - Category II
operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH.
A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? -
ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737.
A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-100),
may serve as pilot in command upon completing which training program? - Upgrade training.
A cyclone is - a hurricane force storm in the Indian Ocean with highest sustained winds of 64
knots or higher.
A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it -
minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.
A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart
without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is - 1915Z.
A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart
without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is - 1915Z.
A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before
a redispatch release is required? - Not more than 1 hour.
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"Drag divergence" usually occurs - ✔ ✔ 5% to 10% above the critical Mach number. "Physiological night's rest" means - ✔ ✔ 0 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember's home base. "Window of circadian low" means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between - ✔ ✔ 0200

  • 0559 A bank angle of 15° will increase induced drag by about - ✔ ✔ =7% A bank angle of 30° will increase induced drag by about - ✔ ✔ 33% A bank angle of 45° will increase induced drag by - ✔ ✔ 100% A bank angle of 60° will increase induced drag by - ✔ ✔ 300% A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to - ✔ ✔ Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? - ✔ ✔ ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-100), may serve as pilot in command upon completing which training program? - ✔ ✔ Upgrade training. A cyclone is - ✔ ✔ a hurricane force storm in the Indian Ocean with highest sustained winds of 64 knots or higher. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it - ✔ ✔ minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is - ✔ ✔ 1915Z. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is - ✔ ✔ 1915Z. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? - ✔ ✔ Not more than 1 hour.

A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is - ✔ ✔ 0005Z. A flag air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, having two pilots and one additional flight crewmember, for no more than - ✔ ✔ 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours. A flight navigator or a specialized means of navigation is required aboard an air carrier airplane operated outside the 48 contiguous United States and District of Columbia when - ✔ ✔ the airplane's position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour. A flightcrew member must be given a rest period before beginning any reserve or flight duty period, of - ✔ ✔ 30 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive hours. A headwind that is 10% of the landing speed will decrease the landing distance - ✔ ✔ 19% A jet airplane operating at a cruise speed of .75 Mach with outside air temperature of -42 degrees C has a true airspeed of - ✔ ✔ 446 knots. To obtain TAS from .75 Mach, use the calculator side of your flight computer and set OAT at -42°C over the Mach index. Find the Mach number on the "minutes" scale, and read TAS above on "miles" scale, or 446 k A jet airplane operating at cruise of .80 Mach with an OAT of -40°C has a true airspeed of - ✔ ✔ 479 knots. A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance that the pilot accepts - ✔ ✔ does not preclude a rejected landing. A person must report RVSM altitude keeping - ✔ ✔ deviations of 300 feet or more from an assigned altitude. A pilot approaching to land at a class D airport in a turbine-powered airplane on a runway served by a VASI shall - ✔ ✔ maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. A pilot employed by an air carrier and/or commercial operator may conduct GPS/WAAS instrument approaches - ✔ ✔ only if approved in their air carrier/commercial operator operations specifications. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line- oriented simulator training within the preceding - ✔ ✔ 24 calendar months. A pilot in command operating under 14 CFR Part 121 must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding - ✔ ✔ 6 calendar months. A pilot of a turbine-powered airplane should climb as rapidly as practicable after taking off to what altitude? - ✔ ✔ 1,500 feet AGL.

An airplane stall warning device must sense - ✔ ✔ relative wind. An airplane stall warning device must sense - ✔ ✔ relative wind. An airplane will always stall at the same - ✔ ✔ angle of attack An airport is not listed in a domestic Air Carrier's Operations Specifications and does not have the prescribed takeoff weather minimums. What are the minimum weather conditions required for takeoff?

  • ✔ ✔ 800-2. An airport movement area is - ✔ ✔ an area requiring permission from ATC to move an aircraft. An alternate airport for departure is required - ✔ ✔ if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hours when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination airport is forecast to be - ✔ ✔ at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable minimum. An approved minimum equipment list or FAA Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or equipment to be inoperative - ✔ ✔ prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed. An increase in airspeed above the stall speed will require - ✔ ✔ a corresponding decrease in angle of attack and co-efficient of lift. An increase in airspeed followed by a decrease in control effectiveness may result in - ✔ ✔ a decrease in downwash on the horizontal tail, resulting in a "tuck under." Any angle of attack lower or higher than L/DMAX - ✔ ✔ increases total drag. Arriving over the runway threshold 50 ft. high and 10 knots over VREF will increase landing distance on dry runway by - ✔ ✔ 3,800 ft. An extra 10 knots increases the landing distance by 10 (10 × 250 = 2,500 ft). For each knot, you increase stopping distance by 20-30 feet (30 × 10 = 300 ft.). For each 50 feet high, you would add 1,000 ft. to the landing distance. Thus, the landing distance is increased by 3,800 ft. (2,500 + 300 + 1,000) At a reported temperature of 10°C with cowl anti-ice on and packs on, the takeoff thrust setting is - ✔ ✔ 90.0% At the end of a power-on approach in a propeller driven airplane, if the pilot sharply reduces power, - ✔ ✔ the airplane may drop suddenly due to reduced lift. At what maximum indicated airspeed can a reciprocating-engine airplane operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace? - ✔ ✔ 200 knots.

At what minimum speed will dynamic hydroplaning begin if a tire has an air pressure of 70 PSI? - ✔ ✔ 75 knots. At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME RWY 32R approach at IAH, if still IMC? - ✔ ✔ IAH 1 DME. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? - ✔ ✔ A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? - ✔ ✔ At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? - ✔ ✔ High speed. At which time is IFR weather first predicted at Lubbock (KLBB)? - ✔ ✔ 0100Z. Automation in aircraft has proven - ✔ ✔ to be able to create larger errors. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's - ✔ ✔ lift, airspeed, and drag. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has - ✔ ✔ logged 100 hours' flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR Part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. Cloud formation is a process of - ✔ ✔ expansional cooling. Compared to a straight wing, swept wing flaps are - ✔ ✔ less effective. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway? - ✔ ✔ At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. Convective SIGMETs are issued for severe thunderstorms - ✔ ✔ occurring for more than 30 minutes of the valid period. CRM refers to - ✔ ✔ the effective use of all available resources: human, hardware, and information. Describe dynamic longitudinal stability. - ✔ ✔ Motion about the lateral axis. Dew point fronts result from - ✔ ✔ air density differences due to humidity levels. During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift and centrifugal force? - ✔ ✔ Centrifugal force is greater than the horizontal lift component.

Fowler flaps as compared to split flaps - ✔ ✔ generate more nose down pitching moment. Fowler flaps as compared to split flaps - ✔ ✔ generate more nose down pitching moment. Fowler flaps as compared to split flaps - ✔ ✔ generate more nose down pitching moment. Frozen dew is - ✔ ✔ hard and transparent Fundamental recovery from a stall requires - ✔ ✔ decreasing the angle of attack. GBAS approaches are - ✔ ✔ flown using the same techniques as an ILS once selected and identified. Generally, the turning performance of an airplane is defined by - ✔ ✔ aerodynamic and structural limits at low altitude. How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? - ✔ ✔ A lower angle of attack. How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? - ✔ ✔ Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? - ✔ ✔ An abrupt change in relative wind. How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC? - ✔ ✔ LDA -- offset from runway plus 3°, ILS -- aligned with runway. How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC? - ✔ ✔ SDF -- 6° or 12° wide, ILS -- 3° to 6°. How does VNE change with altitude? - ✔ ✔ remains the same at all altitudes. How does VS (KTAS) speed vary with altitude? - ✔ ✔ Varies directly with altitude. How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight 180,500 lb. Zero fuel weight 125,500 lb. - ✔ ✔ 1. Subtract the zero fuel weight from the initial weight to determine the initial fuel weight of 55,000 lb. (180,500 - 125,500).

Subtract the zero fuel weight from the desired weight to determine the ending fuel weight of 19,000 lb. (144,500 - 125,500).

Since neither 55,000 lb. nor 19,000 lb. is on the chart, you must interpolate.

At an initial fuel weight of 58,000 lb. and an ending fuel weight of 19,000 lb., the fuel dump time is 17. min. At an initial fuel weight of 54,000 lb. and an ending fuel weight of 19,000 lb., the fuel dump time is 14.5 min.

Interpolate for the initial fuel weight of 55,000 lb. to determine a fuel dump time of 15 min. How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division? - ✔ ✔ No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain hole and static port are not? - ✔ ✔ Indication will drop to zero. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in the new position after the controls have been neutralized. - ✔ ✔ Neutral longitudinal static stability. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized. - ✔ ✔ Negative static stability. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original position after the controls have been neutralized. - ✔ ✔ Positive static stability. If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? - ✔ ✔ Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative. If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be armed? - ✔ ✔ For taxi, takeoff, and landing. If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only - ✔ ✔ If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6,000 pounds in flight, the load factor would be - ✔ ✔ 3 Gs If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6,000 pounds in flight, the load factor would be - ✔ ✔ 3 Gs.

In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure areas form? - ✔ ✔ Slow- moving cold fronts or stationary fronts. Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining - ✔ ✔ possible causes of accidents or incidents. Isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure - ✔ ✔ reduced to sea level. Isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure - ✔ ✔ reduced to sea level. It is important to combine the boundary layer control with flaps since - ✔ ✔ the flap deflection tends to reduce the angle of attack for maximum lift. Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short - ✔ ✔ of some designated point on the runway. Land surface cooling on the coast results in - ✔ ✔ land breeze Land surface heating on the coast results in - ✔ ✔ a sea breeze. Leading-edge, high-lift devices are - ✔ ✔ more effective on the highly swept wing than trailing edge flaps. Lift coefficient must be maximum at the - ✔ ✔ airplane stall speed. Limiting flight time for all flightcrew members will include - ✔ ✔ any flying by flightcrew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager. Military training routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet are depicted on - ✔ ✔ IFR Low Altitude En Route Charts. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range? - ✔ ✔ 25,000 feet to the tropopause. Normally, a dispatcher for domestic or flag operations should be scheduled for no more than - ✔ ✔ 10 consecutive hours of duty. Normally, a dispatcher for domestic or flag operations should be scheduled for no more than - ✔ ✔ 10 consecutive hours of duty. Notification of the rest opportunity period during unaugmented operations, must be - ✔ ✔ given before the beginning of the flight duty period. On most airplanes, the first 50% of flap deflection causes - ✔ ✔ more than 50% of the total change in lift.

On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No. 1 NAV? - ✔ ✔ R-345. One method of boundary layer control is accomplished by injecting - ✔ ✔ a high speed jet of air into the boundary layer. Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during a GPS approach will - ✔ ✔ cancel the approach mode annunciation. Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport

  • ✔ ✔ when the flight arrives. Propeller driven airplanes can develop more lift at slower airspeeds with high power on because - ✔ ✔ the dynamic pressure is created downstream of the propellers. Radiation fog forms - ✔ ✔ always over land. Refer to Table C.) In an airplane with an augmented crew of three flightcrew members assigned, the maximum flight duty period is - ✔ ✔ 16 hours if assigned to report at 0630 with a class 1 rest facility available. In an airplane with an augmented crew of three flightcrew members assigned, they can have a maximum flight duty period of 16 hours if they are assigned to report at 0630 with a class 1 rest facility available. Shallow frontal surfaces tend to give - ✔ ✔ extensive cloudiness and large areas of precipitation Shallow frontal surfaces tend to give - ✔ ✔ extensive cloudiness and large areas of precipitation. SIGMETs (other than domestic convective SIGMETs) may be valid for not more than - ✔ ✔ 4 hours for other phenomena. Situational awareness is the - ✔ ✔ accurate perception and understanding of all factors and conditions within the five fundamental risk elements. Some airplanes can experience compressibility effects at flight speeds well below the speed of sound due to - ✔ ✔ surfaces that produce different local flow velocities. Some airplanes can experience compressibility effects at flight speeds well below the speed of sound due to - ✔ ✔ surfaces that produce different local flow velocities. SPECI KGLS 131802Z 10012G21KT 060V140 2SM +SHRA SCT005 BKN035 OVC050CB 24/23 A2980 RMK RAB57 WS TKO RW09L WSHFT 58 FROPA. This SPECI report at Galveston (KGLS) indicates which condition? - ✔ ✔ Precipitation started at 57 after the hour.

The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to - ✔ ✔ 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of - ✔ ✔ SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW), and Center Weather Advisories (CWA). The illusion of being in a nose-up attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration takeoff is known as - ✔ ✔ somatogravic illusion. The illusion of being in a nose-up attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration takeoff is known as - ✔ ✔ somatogravic illusion. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the - ✔ ✔ names of all crewmembers. The La Guardia Weather goes below minimums and New York Approach Control issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT Intersection. What is the lowest altitude that Approach Control may clear N711JB to cross ASALT Intersection? - ✔ ✔ 2,000 feet. The lowest ILS Category II minimums are - ✔ ✔ DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a flag air carrier may schedule a pilot in a two- pilot crew without a rest period is - ✔ ✔ 8 hours. The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class B airspace, after departing the primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and 3.5 nautical miles from the airport is - ✔ ✔ 250 knots. The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is - ✔ ✔ 10 hours. The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is - ✔ ✔ 10 hours. The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as the pilot in command in a two- pilot crew for a flag air carrier is - ✔ ✔ 32 hours. The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier pilot may fly, as a crewmember, in a commercial operation, in any 30 consecutive days is - ✔ ✔ 100 hours. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is - ✔ ✔ V1.

The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is indicated by symbol - ✔ ✔ V The minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier's Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed for that airport) is - ✔ ✔ 1,000-1, 900-1 1/2, or 800-2. The pilot in command of an airplane en route determines that icing conditions can be expected that might adversely affect safety of the flight. Which action is appropriate? - ✔ ✔ The pilot in command shall not continue flight into the icing conditions. The prevailing visibility in the following METAR is METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK A $. - ✔ ✔ less than 1/4 statute mile. The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the - ✔ ✔ lift at low speeds. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is - ✔ ✔ 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. The specific range for a turbojet at 40,000 feet is approximately - ✔ ✔ 150% greater than obtained at sea level. The stall speed of an airplane - ✔ ✔ is affected by weight and bank angle. The stall speed of an airplane - ✔ ✔ is affected by weight and bank angle. The supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane's ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of - ✔ ✔ 14,000 feet within 4 minutes. The time enroute from Newport News/Williamsburg Intl to Philadelphia Intl via the flight plan of EAB 90 is - ✔ ✔ 1 hour 31 minutes. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is - ✔ ✔ initial training. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is - ✔ ✔ transition training. The tucking (downward motion) of the nose of an airplane during extension of Fowler flaps is - ✔ ✔ normal. The VV001 in the following METAR indicates

Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? - ✔ ✔ Angle of bank. Vertical wind shear can be determined by comparing winds on vertically adjacent constant pressure charts. The vertical wind shear that is critical for probability of turbulence is - ✔ ✔ Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are denoted by the letters "VC." When VC appears in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of

  • ✔ ✔ a 5-to-10 statute mile radius from the airport. What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? - ✔ ✔ Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. What affects indicated stall speed? - ✔ ✔ Weight, load factor, and power. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? - ✔ ✔ Wind shear. What are FDC NOTAMs? - ✔ ✔ Regulatory amendments to published IAPs and charts not yet available in normally published charts. What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? - ✔ ✔ Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude for Operating Conditions BE-23? - ✔ ✔ 14.0 minutes; 210 pounds; 40 NM. Fig. 15 provides the following operating conditions for BE-23: OAT at takeoff +20°C OAT at cruise ISA Airport pressure altitude 3,000 ft. Cruise altitude 20,000 ft. Initial climb weight 15,000 lb.

Ice vanes Retracted Fig. 18 provides a chart to determine time, fuel, and distance to cruise climb. At the bottom of the chart, find ISA and move up and to the left on the ISA line to the cruise altitude of 20,000 ft. Then move right horizontally to the initial climb weight of 15,000 lb. Then move down vertically to the bottom of the graph to determine the time to climb of 14.5 min. Move down vertically to the fuel-to-climb line to determine fuel burned of 235 lb., and move down vertically to the next line to determine a distance to climb of 44 NM. Repeat this process using an OAT of +20°C and the airport pressure altitude of 3,000 ft. to determine the time to climb of 0.5 min., fuel burned of 25 lb., and a distance of 4 NM. Next, subtract the results of the airport altitude from the results of the cruise altitude. Thus, from 3,000 ft. to 20, ft., it will take 14 min. (14.5 - 0.5), burn 210 lb. (235 - 25) of fuel, and cover a distance of 40 NM (44 - 4). What are V1 and VR speeds for Operating Conditions A-2? - ✔ ✔ V1 127.4 knots; VR 133.6 knots.

Answer (A) is correct. (FTW Chap 8) (? ) Weight determines V1 and VR for DC-9s, after which you must adjust for pressure altitude and temperature, runway slope, wind, and ice protection. A-2 of Fig. 45 indicates

Field elevation 600 ft. Altimeter setting 30.50 in. Weight (× 1,000) 85 lb. Ambient temperature +80°F Runway slope % -1.5% Wind component

Adjust for ice protection. N/A N/A Corrected speeds (kt.)

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? - ✔ ✔ Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? - ✔ ✔ Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? - ✔ ✔ Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second identified as an intermediate tone. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker? - ✔ ✔ Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? - ✔ ✔ The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? - ✔ ✔ Unstable about the lateral axis. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? - ✔ ✔ Poor visibility. What cloud clearance must be complied with when authorized to maintain "VFR-on-Top"? - ✔ ✔ May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or between layers. What condition is reported at Childress (KCDS)? - ✔ ✔ Light rain showers. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground- or surface-based temperature inversion? - ✔ ✔ Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude? - ✔ ✔ The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor. What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? - ✔ ✔ Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle.

What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning? - ✔ ✔ Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking. What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? - ✔ ✔ The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? - ✔ ✔ An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. What functions are provided by ILS? - ✔ ✔ Guidance, range, and visual information. What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)? - ✔ ✔ Current NOTAMs (D). What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? - ✔ ✔ Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? - ✔ ✔ Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? - ✔ ✔ Minimum fuel supply and trip number. What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? - ✔ ✔ Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? - ✔ ✔ there is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm? - ✔ ✔ Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and precipitation retard and reverse the updrafts. What is a feature of a stationary front? - ✔ ✔ Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? - ✔ ✔ Descending to the surface and then outward. What is a purpose of flight spoilers? - ✔ ✔ Increase the rate of descent without increasing airspeed. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? - ✔ ✔ An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. What is load factor - ✔ ✔ Lift divided by the total weight.