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ADX 250 Quiz Queries Well Answered
"Unreliable", as indicated in the following GPS NOTAMS: SFO 12/051 SFO WAAS LNAV/VNAV and LPV MNM UNRELBL WEF0512182025-0512182049 means? - ✔ ✔ within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the predicted level of service will not support the LPV approaches.
A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where? - ✔ ✔ a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.
A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a re-dispatch release is required? - ✔ ✔ Not more than 1 hour.
A flight crew member must be able to don and use a quick donning oxygen mask within? - ✔ ✔ 5 seconds.
A flight navigator or a specialized means of navigation is required aboard an air carrier airplane operated outside the 48 contiguous United States and District of Columbia when? - ✔ ✔ The airplane's position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour.
A pilot making a blood donation in order to help a sick associate should be aware that for several weeks? - ✔ ✔ sufficient oxygen may not reach the cells in the body.
A pilot making a blood donation in order to help a sick associate should be aware that several weeks? - ✔ ✔ sufficient oxygen may not reach the cells in the body.
A public severe thunderstorm watch implies? - ✔ ✔ 58 mph winds or greater and/or surface hail of 1 inch or more in diameter.
A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft to be 280 at 205 knots; temperature -51 C at FL390. How would this data be encoded in the FD? - ✔ ✔ 789951
A strong wind shear can be expected? - ✔ ✔ On the low pressure side of a 100-knot jet stream core.
Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators - ✔ ✔ making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.
Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators? - ✔ ✔ making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.
An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it? - ✔ ✔ has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers.
An air carrier airplanes's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be? - ✔ ✔ conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route.
An air carrier crew fixated on completing the last flight of a four day trip often may exhibit? - ✔ ✔ get-there-itis.
An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top-conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? - ✔ ✔ VOR
An aircraft equipped with DME/DME experiences a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) disruption while en-route. The flight crew will need to navigate using? - ✔ ✔ VOR MON.
An airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit will? - ✔ ✔ Feel heavy in the longitudinal axis.
An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment? - ✔ ✔ Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.
An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment? - ✔ ✔ Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.
Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point protection to? - ✔ ✔ a freezing point no greater than 20 F below the ambient or airplane surface temperature.
At the aft CG limit the horizontal stab and elevator? - ✔ ✔ must develop less down force to balance the decreased forward loading.
At the aft CG limit the horizontal stab and elevator? - ✔ ✔ Must develop less down force to balance the decreased forward loading.
At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 psi? - ✔ ✔ 90 knots.
At what minimum speed will dynamo hydroplaning begin if a tire has an air pressure of 70 PSI - ✔ ✔ 75 knots.
At what speed, with reference to L/Dmax, does maximum rate of climb for a jet airplane occur? - ✔ ✔ A speed greater than that for L/Dmax.
At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? - ✔ ✔ At the equator.
At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? - ✔ ✔ At the equator.
Atmospheric pressure changes due to a thunderstorm will at the lowest value - ✔ ✔ when the thunderstorm is approaching.
Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of? - ✔ ✔ shaft horsepower and jet thrust.
Error management evaluation? - ✔ ✔ should recognize not all errors can be prevented.
Federal Aviation regulations require that interior emergency lights must? - ✔ ✔ Be operable manually from the flight crew station and a point in the passenger compartment.
Flight crew members must receive fatigue education and awareness training? - ✔ ✔ Annually for flight crew member schedulers, operational control individuals, and flight crew members and dispatchers.
Flight crew members must receive fatigue education and awareness training? - ✔ ✔ annually, for flight crew member schedules, operational control individuals and flight crew members and dispatchers.
Flight operations conducted in Class A airspace require the aircraft be equipped with a? - ✔ ✔ extended squatter ADS-B operating on a radio frequency 1090 Mhz.
Flight operations conducted in Class A airspace require the aircraft be equipped with a? - ✔ ✔ Extended squatter ADS-B operating on radio frequency 1090 MHz.
For a 2 hours flight in a reciprocating engine powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12, feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for? - ✔ ✔ 30 minutes for 10% of the passengers.
For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for? - ✔ ✔ all aircraft occupants.
For a short call reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed? - ✔ ✔ 14 hours.
For a short call reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed? - ✔ ✔ 14 hours.
For airport/standby reserve, all time spend in airport/standby reserve is? - ✔ ✔ part of the flight crew member's flight duty period.
For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes? - ✔ ✔ 15,000.
For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system? - ✔ ✔ A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the Tim elf testing may be erased.
For unaugmented flight crew operations, your maximum flight duty period limit is? - ✔ ✔ 13 Hours if assigned to report at 0700 for 4 flight segments.
Freezing point depressant (FPD) fluids are used for deicing - ✔ ✔ are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only.
Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that? - ✔ ✔ a layer of warmer air exists above.
GBAS approaches are? - ✔ ✔ flown using the same techniques as an ILS once selected and identified.
How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crew members? It is? - ✔ ✔ not considered to be part of a rest period.
How does fatigue affect a pilot? - ✔ ✔ The pilot does not realize he/she is sleepy until the mistake has already been made.
How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC? - ✔ ✔ LDA. offset from the runway plus 3 to 6 degrees.
How does the SDF differ than an ILS LOC? - ✔ ✔ ADF - 6 or 12 wide, ILS 3-6.
How long is cockpit voice recorder ad flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? - ✔ ✔ 60 days.
How many continuous jet streams are there? - ✔ ✔ 4; the northern polar and southern polar jets and the northern and southern subtropical jets.
How may an aircraft operate in North Atlantic (NAT) minimum navigation performance specifications airspace with less than the minimum navigation capability required by FAR Part 91, appendix C? - ✔ ✔ By requesting a deviation from the administrator.
How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crew member on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet? - ✔ ✔ A minimum of 2 hour supply.
How often must a crew member actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? Once every? - ✔ ✔ 24 months.
How should the route of flight be defined on an IFR flight plan? - ✔ ✔ A simplified route via airways or jet routes with transitions.
How thick should a cloud be for rain? - ✔ ✔ 4000'.
If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? - ✔ ✔ Not more that 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
IF a required instrument on a multi-engine airplane becomes inoperative, which document required under 14 CFR part 121 dictates whether the flight may continue en route? - ✔ ✔ Certificate holder's manual.
Isobars on a surface weather chart represent lies of equal pressure? - ✔ ✔ reduced to sea level.
Landing weight increase of 10% will result in? - ✔ ✔ 21% increase in kinetic energy.
Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored? - ✔ ✔ Within easy reach of each seated occupant.
Loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases, - ✔ ✔ Oxygen partial pressure is decreased.
Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as long as - ✔ ✔ 6000 ft/min.
Maximum turbulence potential charts (GTG-2) are issued? - ✔ ✔ hourly.
Maximum turbulence potential charts (GTG-2) are published for what attitudes? - ✔ ✔ 10,000 ft MSL to FL450.
METAR KMAF 131756Z 02020KT 12SM BKN025 OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE44. Which weather condition is indicated by this METAR report at Midland (KMAF) - ✔ ✔ Rain of unknown intensity ended 16 minutes before the hour.
Missed approach routing in which the first track is via a course rather than direct to the next waypoint requires? - ✔ ✔ additional action by the operator to set the course.
No flight crew member may accept an assignment for any reserve or flight duty period unless the flight crew member is given? - ✔ ✔ 10 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period.
No flight crew member may accept an assignment without scheduled rest opportunities for? - ✔ ✔ More than 3 consecutive night time flights that infringe on the window of circadian low.
Normall, a dispatcher for domestic or flag operations should be scheduled for no more than? - ✔ ✔ 10 consecutive hours of duty.
Normally, a dispatcher for domestic or flag operations should be scheduled for no more than? - ✔ ✔ 10 consecutive hours of duty.
Notification of the rest opportunity period during unaugmented operations, must be? - ✔ ✔ Given before the beginning of the flight duty period.
Notification of the rest opportunity period during unaugmented operations, must be? - ✔ ✔ Provided no later than after the first flight segment offered after the first flight segment is completed.
On final approach to the airport, airplane in position #5 would experience? - ✔ ✔ poor performance.
On the constant pressure analysis chart, satellite and aircraft observations are used in the analysis, over areas of sparse date. A satellite observation plotted using? - ✔ ✔ A star at a the cloud top location.
Operations at and above FL180 require the use of what onboard avionics equipment? - ✔ ✔ Traffic Information Services - Broadcast and Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast.
Outside the western US mountainous area, the VOR MON will provide nearly continuous navigation signal coverage across the national airspace system an altitude? - ✔ ✔ 5,000 feet AGL.
Outside the western US mountainous area, the VOR MON will provide nearly continuous navigation signal coverage across the national airspace system at and above an altitude of? - ✔ ✔ 5,000 feet AGL.
Over the contiguous U.S. the OR MON assures that a MON airport will be available within how many miles of the aircrafts position? - ✔ ✔ 100nm.
Physiological nights rest means? - ✔ ✔ 10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crew member's home base.
Physiological nights rest means? - ✔ ✔ 10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crew member's home base.
Pilot fatigue is a hazard because? - ✔ ✔ a fatigued pilot is an impaired pilot.
Pilots are not authorized to fly a published RVAV or RNP procedure unless it is retrievable by the procedure name from? - ✔ ✔ The aircraft navigation database.
Pressure Atitude, 1,000 ft.
True air temperature 10C
What is the approximate density altitude? - ✔ ✔ 650 feet MSL.
Requests for deviations for inoperable ADS-B equipment may be made to - ✔ ✔ the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace at any time.
Rest period means - ✔ ✔ a continuous period determined prospectively during which the flight crew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder.
Shear turbulence from a thunderstorm has been encountered? - ✔ ✔ 20 miles from the severe thunderstorm.
SIGMETS (other than domestic convective SIGMETs) may be valid for not more than? - ✔ ✔ 4 hours for other phenomena?
The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbo propeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the 48 contiguous United States is? - ✔ ✔ 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport.
The illusion associated with landing on a narrower than usual runway may result in the pilot flying a? - ✔ ✔ lower approach with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing short.
The illusion of being in a nose up attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration takeoff is known as? - ✔ ✔ somatogravic illusion.
The lowest authorized ILS minimums associated with a CAT II approaches are? - ✔ ✔ DH is 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.
The lowest CAT II minims are? - ✔ ✔ DH 150 and RVR 1600.
The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at V(EF), at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is indicated by the symbol? - ✔ ✔ V(2min).
The minimum speed ruing takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at V(EF), at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is indicated by symbol? - ✔ ✔ V(2min).
The rate of decrease in wind speed from the jet stream core is considerably greater on the? - ✔ ✔ Polar side.
The stability of an air mass can usually be determined by? - ✔ ✔ cloud types and the type of precipitation.
The stability of an air mass can usually be determined by? - ✔ ✔ cloud types and the type of precipitation.
The threshold wind speed in the jet stream for clear air turbulence is generally considered to be? - ✔ ✔ 110 kts.
The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value? - ✔ ✔ 3/4 SM.
The VV001 in the follow METAR indicates? - ✔ ✔ a 100 foot indefinite ceiling.
Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered? - ✔ ✔ When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isopachs less than 150 nm apart.
Vertical wind shear can be determined directly from the dashed lines on the tropopause data chart. The vertical wind shear is critical for probability of turbulence is? - ✔ ✔ 6 knots or more per 1,000 feet.
What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? - ✔ ✔ Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.
What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? - ✔ ✔ Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made.
What action should be taken when a pilot is "cleared for approach" while being radar vectored on an unpublished route? - ✔ ✔ Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment.
What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the report is closed? - ✔ ✔ Wind shear.
What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? - ✔ ✔ Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
What are the line check requirements for a domestic air carrier pilot in command under 60 years of age?
- ✔ ✔ The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown.
What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? - ✔ ✔ Unstable about the lateral axis.
What departure alternate is required for a three engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a distance not greater than? - ✔ ✔ 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine not functioning.
What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight? - ✔ ✔ Higher than at low elevation.
What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? - ✔ ✔ The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.
What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? - ✔ ✔ Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density.
What emergency equipment is required for the extended over water operations? - ✔ ✔ A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? - ✔ ✔ a stable layer of air.
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? - ✔ ✔ A stable layer of air.
What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? - ✔ ✔ Higher than actual.
What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? - ✔ ✔ 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.
What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other? - ✔ ✔ 4 degrees on the ground and in flight.
What is the minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? - ✔ ✔ 95 knots.
What is the movement of the center of pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are shock- stalled first? - ✔ ✔ Inward and forward.
What is the primary purpose of a STAR? - ✔ ✔ Simplify clearance delivery procedures.
What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? - ✔ ✔ Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight control pressures.
What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? - ✔ ✔ A severe moment or 'mach tuck'.
What is the Tre airspeed for a flight at Mach .80 and the temperature is -34c? - ✔ ✔ 482.
What is the true airspeed for a flight at Mach 0.75 and the temperature is -29C. - ✔ ✔ 457
What is the true airspeed for a flight at Mach 0.80 and the temperature is -40c? - ✔ ✔ 452.
What is the tue airspeed for a flight at Mach 0.72 and the temperature is -30c? - ✔ ✔ 436.
What maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases? - ✔ ✔ Airspeed.
What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within class C airspace? - ✔ ✔ Two-way communications and transponder.
What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a serious injury? - ✔ ✔ 48 hours, commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a serious injury? - ✔ ✔ 48 hours, commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
What pilot certification and aircraft equipment are required for operating in class C airspace? - ✔ ✔ No specific certification but a two-way radio.
What publication includes information on operations in the Nort Atlantic High Level Airspace (NAT HLA)?
What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR operational check? - ✔ ✔ The date, place, bearing error, and signature in the aircraft log or other record.
What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane operated under 14 CFR Part 121? - ✔ ✔ Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other takedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.
What separation or service by ATC is afforded pilots authorized "VFR on Top? - ✔ ✔ Taffic advisories only.
What service is provided for aircraft operating with the outer area of Class C airspace? - ✔ ✔ The same as within Class C airspace when communications and radar contact is established.
What services are provided for aircraft operating within Class C airspace? - ✔ ✔ Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircraft (except between VFR aircraft), and traffic advisories.
What type of information is disseminated by NOTAM (D)? - ✔ ✔ Status of navigation aids, ILS, Radar service available, and other information essential to planning.
What type of turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third of the time? - ✔ ✔ Intermittent light turbulence.
What type turbulence should be reported when it causes slight, rapid, and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness without appreciable changes in attitude or altitude, less than one-third of the time? - ✔ ✔ Occasional light chop.
What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third or two -thirds of the time? - ✔ ✔ Intermittent light turbulence.
What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dew point lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge? - ✔ ✔ Cloud bases form.
What would be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered unreliable? - ✔ ✔ The identifier would be removed.
When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft? - ✔ ✔ One for each occupant on the aircraft.
When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? - ✔ ✔ Only the required flight crew members may be on board the airplane.
When carrying a passenger aboard an all cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? - ✔ ✔ The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment.
Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight?
- ✔ ✔ Type of operation, (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number.
Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag carrier flight? - ✔ ✔ Type of operation, IFR, VFR, Trip number.
Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? - ✔ ✔ Tingling sensations.
Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane? - ✔ ✔ Decreased angle of attack for stalls.
Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane? - ✔ ✔ Decreased angle of attack for stalls.
Which is the purpose of ground spoilers? - ✔ ✔ Reduce the wings lift upon landing.
Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying a large, turbine-engine-powered airplane when one of its engines is inoperative? - ✔ ✔ The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR.
Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying a large, turbine-engine-powered airplane when one of its engines is inoperative? - ✔ ✔ The wx conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR.
Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? - ✔ ✔ Compressor discharge.
Which pressure is defined as station pressure? - ✔ ✔ Actual pressure at field elevation.
Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft? - ✔ ✔ The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed.
Which term describes the hydroplaning which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? - ✔ ✔ Reverted rubber hydroplaning.
Which type of frontal system is normally crossed by the set stream? - ✔ ✔ Occulded front.
Which type of weather can only be directly observed during flight and then reported in a PIREP? - ✔ ✔ Turbulence and structural icing.
While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as? - ✔ ✔ Coriolis illusion.
While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? - ✔ ✔ DME.
Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB?
Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB?
Working 7 days in a row, 14 hours a day waiting, flying, waiting, flying, and waiting will leave you? - ✔ ✔ with a case of chronic fatigue.
You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR Part 25 certified jet and you see an engine oil pressure caution light as you pass V1, you should - ✔ ✔ continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the illumination as an inflight emergency.
You have just touched down hard I the rain on a narrower than usual runway at night. You realize you have just experienced? - ✔ ✔ An atmospheric height illusion.
