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ACLS Study Verified Exam 2025-2026 With
Correct Verified Answers
Dopamine - correct answer>>A catecholamine-like agent that stimulates both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors Norepinephrine - correct answer>>A potent vasoconstrictor and inotropic agent; effective for a patient with severe hypotension and a low total peripheral resistance who doesn't respond to less potent drugs such as dopamine, phenylephrine, or methoxamine Optimal temperature for therapeutic hypothermia - correct answer>> 32 - 34 degrees Celcius for 12 - 24 hours Hypovolemia: Clues from ECG and Monitor - correct answer>>Narrow Complex & Rapid Rate Hypovolemia: Clues from history and physical examination - correct answer>>History, glat neck veins Hypovolemia: Potential Effective Interventions - correct answer>>Volume Infusions Hypoxia: Clues from ECG and Monitor - correct answer>>Slow rate Hypoxia: Clues from history and Physical Examination - correct answer>>Cyanosis, blood gases, airway problems Hypoxia: Potential Effective INterventions - correct answer>>Oxygenation, ventilation, advanced airway Hydrogen ion (acidosis): Clues from ECG and Monitor - correct answer>>Smaller- amplitude QRS complexes Hydrogen Ion: Clues from History and Physical Examinations - correct answer>>History of diabetes, bicarbonate-responsive preexisting acidosis, renal failure
Hydrogen ion: Potential Effective Interventions - correct answer>>Ventilation, sodium Bicarbonate Hyperkalemia: Clues from ECG and Monitor - correct answer>>T waves taller and peaked, P waves get smaller, QRS widens, sine-wave PEA Hyperkalemia: Clues form history and Physical Examination - correct answer>>History of renal failure, diabetes, recent dialysis, dialysis fistulas, medications Hyperkalemia: Potential Effective Interventions - correct answer>>Calcium Chloride, Sodium bicarbonate, Glucose plus insulin, Possibly albuterol Hypokalemia: clues from ECG and monitor - correct answer>>T waves flatten, prominent U waves, QRS widens, QT prolongs, Wide-complex tachycardia Hypokalemia: Clues from history and physical examination - correct answer>>Abnormal loss of potassium, diuretic use Hypokalemia: Potential Effective Interventions - correct answer>>Add magnesium if cardiac arrest Hypothermia: Clues from ECG and Monitor - correct answer>>J or Osborne waves Hypothermia: Clues from History and Physical Examination - correct answer>>History of exposure to cold, central body temperature Tension pneumothorax: Clues from ECG and Monitor - correct answer>>Narrow Complex, slow rate Tension pneumothorax: Clues from History and Physical Examination - correct answer>>History, no pulse felt with CPR, neck vein distention, tracheal deviation, unequal breath sounds, difficult to ventilate patient Tension Pneumothorax: Potential Effective Intervention - correct answer>>Needle Decompression, tube thoracostomy
Asystole - correct answer>>Either the terminal rhythm that is the last of a degenerating rhythm or the first identifiable rhythm for a patient with un- witnessed or prolonged arrest Acute Coronary Syndromes - correct answer>>Sudden cardiac death due to VF and hypotensive bradyarrhythmias with acute ischemia What are the goals of drugs during the initial treatments of ACS? - correct answer>>Relieve ischemic discomfort, dissolve clots, and inhibit thrombin/plateletes Drugs used in the initial treatment of ACS - correct answer>>Oxygen, Aspirin, Nitroglycerin, Morphine, Fibrinolytic Therapy, UFH/LMWH Adjunctive drugs in treatment for ACS - correct answer>>Beta blockers, Adenosine Diphsophate antagonists (clopidogrel, prasugrel), ACE inhibitors, HMG- CoA reducatse inhibitors (statins) Three classifications of ST segment presence or LBBB on 12-lead ECG analysis - correct answer>>1. STEMI
- High-risk UA/non-ST-elevation MI (NSTEMI)
- Intermediate/low-risk UA Three situation in which Nitroglycerin cannot be used - correct answer>>1. Inferior wall MI and right ventricular infarction
- Hypotension (SBP < 90), bradycardia (<50/min), or tachycardia
- Recent phosphodiesterase inhibitor use (sildenafil or vardenafil within 24 hours) (vardenafil within 48 hours) First effect of Morphine - correct answer>>Produces CNS analgesia which decreases neurohormonal activation, catecholamine release, and heightened myocardial O2 demand Second effect of Morphine - correct answer>>Venodilation which reduces LV preload and O2 demand
Third effect of Morphine - correct answer>>Decreases SVR which decreases LV afterload Fourth effect of Morphine - correct answer>>Redistributes blood volume in patients with acute pulmonary edema Fibrinolytic time goal for STEMI - correct answer>>within 30 minutes of arrival to ED PCI time goal for STEMI - correct answer>>within 90 minutes of arrival to ED ST-Segment Deviation in a STEMI - correct answer>>ST-segment elevation; J-point elevation greater than 2mm in leads V2 & V ST-Segment Deviation in a NSTEMI/High-risk UA - correct answer>>ST depression greater than or equal to 0.5 mm or dynamic T-wave inversion with c/o pain or discomfort ST-Segment Deviation in Intermediate/low-risk UA - correct answer>>Normal or non-diagnostic ECG Indication for IV nitroglycerin initiation - correct answer>>Recurrent or continuing chest discomfort unresponsive to sublingual/spray; Pulmonary edema complicating STEMI; Hypertension complicating STEMI Goals of IV Nitroglycerin therapy - correct answer>>Relief of ischemic chest discomfort, Improve pulmonary edema and hypertension (limit drop in SBP to 30 mmHg below baseline in hypertensive patients Complete AV block with a ventricular escape pacemaker - correct answer>>Wide QRS: 0.12 to 0.14 seconds Third-Degree AV block with a junctional escae pacemaker - correct answer>>Narrow QRS: < 0.12 seconds
Polymorphic QRS appearance - correct answer>>Indicates Torsades de Pointes Polymorphic VT treatment - correct answer>>high-energy Unsynchronized defibrillationd Monophasic Cardioversion Joules - correct answer>>initial 200-J synchronized shock Biphasic Cardioversion Joules - correct answer>>initial 120-200 J synchronized shock Initial energy dose for Atrial flutter and SVT - correct answer>> 50 - 100 J Monitor lead attachments for cardioversion - correct answer>>White to right Red to ribs Left over to the left shoulder Initial energy dose for Unstable Monomorphic VT - correct answer>>100 Joules Which concurrent drugs require a reduced 3 mg dose of adenosine? - correct answer>>Dipyridamole or carbamazepine Which concurrent drugs require a larger dose of adenosine? - correct answer>>Theophylline, caffeine, or theobromine Which population is adenosine contraindicated and why? - correct answer>>Asthmatic patients because it can cause bronchospasm 8 D's of Stroke Care - correct answer>>Detection, Dispatch, Delivery, Door, Data, Decision, Drug, Disposition First 10 minutes of Stroke - correct answer>>general assessment, Physician, order noncontrast CT First 25 minutes of Stroke - correct answer>>Neurologic assessment, CT scan First 45 minutes of Stroke - correct answer>>CT scan interpretation
First 1-3 hours of Stroke - correct answer>>Initiation of Fibrinolytic therapy First 3 hours of Stroke - correct answer>>Admission to a floor Labs required upon assessment of Stroke patient - correct answer>>CBC, coags, blood glucose Use of Labetalol in Stroke pt. with BP> 185/110 - correct answer>> 10 - 20 mg IV over 1-2 minutes (may repeat x1) Use of Nicardipine in Stroke pt. with BP> 185/110 - correct answer>>5 mg IV/hr, titrate up by 2/5 mg/hr every 5-15 minutes (maximum 15mg/hr) when desired BP reached - lower to 3 mg/hr How often must BP be monitored during rtPA or other acute reperfusion therapy?
- correct answer>>q15m for 2 hours, then q30m for 6 hours, and then q1h for 16 hours Use of Labetalol in post-reperfusion pt. with bp 180-230/105-120 mmHg - correct answer>>10 mg IV followed by continuous infusion 2-8 mg/min Use of Nicardipine in post-reperfusion pt. with bp 180-230/104-120 mmHg - correct answer>>5 mg/hour, titrate up to desired effect by 2.5 mg/hr q5-15 mins (maximum 15 mg/hr)
