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AAPC CPC Practice Questions & Answers 2024.
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A 46-year-old female had a previous biopsy that indicated positive malignant margins anteriorly on the right side of her neck. A 0.5 cm margin was drawn out and a 15 blade scalpel was used for full excision of an 8 cm lesion. Layered closure was performed after the removal. The specimen was sent for permanent histopathologic examination. What are the CPT® code(s) for this procedure? A. 11626 B. 11626, 12004- C. 11626, 12044- D. 11626, 13132-51, 13133 - ✔C. 11626, 12044- A 30-year-old female is having 15 sq cm debridement performed on an infected ulcer with eschar on the right foot. Using sharp dissection, the ulcer was debrided all the way to down to the bone of the foot. The bone had to be minimally trimmed because of a sharp point at the end of the metatarsal. After debriding the area, there was minimal bleeding because of very poor circulation of the foot. It seems that the toes next to the ulcer may have some involvement and cultures were taken. The area was dressed with sterile saline and dressings and then wrapped. What CPT® code should be reported? A. 11043 B. 11012 C. 11044 D. 11042 - ✔C. 11044 A 64-year-old female who has multiple sclerosis fell from her walker and landed on a glass table. She lacerated her forehead, cheek and chin and the total length of these lacerations was 6 cm. Her right arm and left leg had deep cuts measuring 5 cm on each extremity. Her right hand and right foot had a total of 3 cm lacerations. The ED physician repaired the lacerations as follows: The forehead, cheek, and chin had debridement and cleaning of glass debris with the lacerations being closed with one layer closure, 6-0 Prolene sutures. The arm and leg were repaired by layered closure, 6-0 Vicryl subcutaneous sutures and Prolene sutures on the skin. The hand and foot were closed with adhesive strips. Select the appropriate procedure codes for this visit. A. 99283-25, 12014, 12034-59, 12002-59, 11042- B. 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59, 12002- C. 99283-25, 12014, 12034-59, 11042- D. 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59 - ✔D. 99283-25, 12053, 12034- A 52-year-old female has a mass growing on her right flank for several years. It has finally gotten significantly larger and is beginning to bother her. She is brought to the Operating Room for definitive excision. An incision was made directly overlying the mass. The mass was down into the subcutaneous tissue and the surgeon encountered a well encapsulated lipoma approximately 4 centimeters. This was excised primarily bluntly with a few attachments divided with electrocautery. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
Question 5 PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Right scaphoid fracture. TYPE OF PROCEDURE: Open reduction and internal fixation of right scaphoid fracture. DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The patient was brought to the operating room; anesthesia having been administered. The right upper extremity was prepped and draped in a sterile manner. The limb was elevated, exsanguinated, and a pneumatic arm tourniquet was elevated. An incision was made over the dorsal radial aspect of the right wrist. Skin flaps were elevated. Cutaneous nerve branches were identified and very gently retracted. The interval between the second and third dorsal compartment tendons was identified and entered. The respective tendons were retracted. A dorsal capsulotomy incision was made, and the fracture was visualized. There did not appear to be any type of significant defect at the fracture site. A 0.045 Kirschner wire was then used as a guidewire, extending from t - ✔A. 25628-RT An infant with genu valgum is brought to the operating room to have a bilateral medial distal femur hemiepiphysiodesis done. On each knee, the C-arm was used to localize the growth plate. With the growth plate localized, an incision was made medially on both sides. This was taken down to the fascia, which was opened. The periosteum was not opened. The Orthofix® figure-of-eight plate was placed and checked with X-ray. We then irrigated and closed the medial fascia with 0 Vicryl suture. The skin was closed with 2-0 Vicryl and 3-0 Monocryl®. What procedure code is reported? A. 27470- B. 27475- C. 27477- D. 27485-50 - ✔D. 27485- The patient is a 67-year-old gentleman with metastatic colon cancer recently operated on for a brain metastasis, now for placement of an Infuse-A-Port for continued chemotherapy. The left subclavian vein was located with a needle and a guide wire placed. This was confirmed to be in the proper position fluoroscopically. A transverse incision was made just inferior to this and a subcutaneous pocket created just inferior to this. After tunneling, the introducer was placed over the guide wire and the power port line was placed with the introducer and the introducer was peeled away. The tip was placed in the appropriate position under fluoroscopic guidance and the catheter trimmed to the appropriate length and secured to the power port device. The locking mechanism was fully engaged. The port was placed in the subcutaneous pocket and everything sat very nicely fluoroscopically. It was secured to the underlying soft tissue - ✔C. 36561, 77001- Question 8 A CT scan identified moderate-sized right pleural effusion in a 50 year-old male. This was estimated to be 800 cc in size and had an appearance of fluid on the CT Scan. A needle is used to puncture through the chest tissues and enter the pleural cavity to insert a guidewire under ultrasound guidance. A pigtail catheter is then inserted at
brought to the operating room. An infraumbilical incision was made which a 5-mm VersaStep™ trocar was inserted. A 5-mm 0- degree laparoscope was introduced. A second 5-mm trocar was placed suprapubically and a 12-mm trocar in the left lower quadrant. A window was made in the mesoappendix using blunt dissection with no rupture noted. The base of the appendix was then divided and placed into an Endo- catch bag and the 12-mm defect was brought out. Select the appropriate code for this procedure: A. 44970 B. 44950 C. 44960 D. 44979 - ✔A. 44970 A 45-year-old male is going to donate his kidney to his son. Operating ports where placed in standard position and the scope was inserted. Dissection of the renal artery and vein was performed isolating the kidney. The kidney was suspended only by the renal artery and vein as well as the ureter. A stapler was used to divide the vein just above the aorta and three clips across the ureter, extracting the kidney. This was placed on ice and sent to the recipient room. The correct CPT® code is: A. 50543 B. 50547 C. 50300 D. 50320 - ✔B. 50547 A 67-year-old female having urinary incontinence with intrinsic sphincter deficiency is having a cystoscopy performed with a placement of a sling. An incision was made over the mid urethra dissected laterally to urethropelvic ligament. Cystoscopy revealed no penetration of the bladder. The edges of the sling were weaved around the junction of the urethra and brought up to the suprapubic incision. A hemostat was then placed between the sling and the urethra, ensuring no tension. What CPT® code(s) is (are) reported? A. 57288 B. 57287 C. 57288, 52000- D. 51992, 52000-51 - ✔A. 57288 A 16-day-old male baby is in the OR for a repeat circumcision due to redundant foreskin that caused circumferential scarring from the original circumcision. Anesthetic was injected and an incision was made at base of the foreskin. Foreskin was pulled back and the excess foreskin was taken off and the two raw skin surfaces were sutured together to create a circumferential anastomosis. Select the appropriate code for this surgery: A. 54150 B. 54160 C. 54163 D. 54164 - ✔C. 54163 5 year-old female has a history of post void dribbling. She was found to have extensive labial adhesions, which have been unresponsive to topical medical management. She is brought to the operating suite in a supine position. Under general anesthesia the labia majora is retracted and the granulating chronic
adhesions were incised midline both anteriorly and posteriorly. The adherent granulation tissue was excised on either side. What code should be used for this procedure? A. 58660 B. 58740 C. 57061 D. 56441 - ✔D. 56441 The patient is a 64 year-old female who is undergoing a removal of a previously implanted Medtronic pain pump and catheter due to a possible infection. The back was incised; dissection was carried down to the previously placed catheter. There was evidence of infection with some fat necrosis in which cultures were taken. The intrathecal portion of the catheter was removed. Next the pump pocket was incised and the pump was dissected from the anterior fascia. A 7-mm Blake drain was placed in the pump pocket through a stab incision and secured to the skin with interrupted Prolene. The pump pocket was copiously irrigated with saline and closed in two layers. What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes for this procedure? A. 62365, 62350-51, T85.898A, Z46. B. 62360, 62355-51, T85.79XA C. 62365, 62355-51, T85.79XA D. 36590, I97.42, T85.898A - ✔C. 62365, 62355-51, T85.79XA The patient is a 73 year-old gentleman who was noted to have progressive gait instability over the past several months. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrated a ventriculomegaly. It was recommended that the patient proceed forward with right frontal ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement with Codman® programmable valve. What is the correct code for this surgery? A. 62220 B. 62223 C. 62190 D. 62192 - ✔B. 62223 What is the CPT® code for the decompression of the median nerve found in the space in the wrist on the palmar side? A. 64704 B. 64713 C. 64721 D. 64719 - ✔C. 64721 A 2-year-old male has a chalazion on both upper and lower lid of the right eye. He was placed under general anesthesia. With a #11 blade the chalazion was incised and a small curette was then used to retrieve any granulomatous material on both lids. What CPT® code should be used for this procedure? A. 67801 B. 67805 C. 67800 D. 67808 - ✔D. 67808 An 80-year-old patient is returning to the gynecologist's office for pessary cleaning. Patient offers no complaints. The nurse removes and cleans the pessary, vagina is
A catheter is placed in the left common femoral artery which was directed into the right the external iliac (antegrade). Dye was injected and a right lower extremity angiogram was performed which revealed patency of the common femoral and profunda femoris. The catheter was then manipulated into the superficial femoral artery (retrograde) in which a lower extremity angiogram was performed which revealed occlusion from the popliteal to the tibioperoneal artery. What are the procedure codes that describe this procedure? A. 36217, 75736- B. 36247, 75716- C. 36217, 75756- D. 36247, 75710-26 - ✔D. 36247, 75710- 56-year-old female is having a bilateral mammogram with computer aid detection conducted as a screening because the patient has a family history of breast cancer. She does not presently have signs or symptoms of breast disease. What radiological services are reported? A. 77065 x 2 B. 77065, 77066 C. 77067 D. 77066 - ✔C. 77067 A 63-year-old patient with bilateral ureteral obstruction presents to an outpatient facility for placement of a right and left ureteral stent along with an interpretation of a retrograde pyelogram. What codes should be reported? A. 52332, 74425 B. 52332-50, 74420- C. 52005, 74420 D. 52005-50, 74425-26 - ✔B. 52332-50, 74420- Patient is coming in for a pathological examination for ischemia in the left leg. The first specimen is 1.5 cm of a single portion of arterial plaque taken from the left common femoral artery. The second specimen is 8.5 x 2.7 cm across x 1.5 cm in thickness of a cutaneous ulceration with fibropurulent material on the left leg. What surgical pathology codes should be reported for the pathologist? A. 88304-26, 88302- B. 88305-26, 88304- C. 88307-26, 88305- D. 88309-26, 88307-26 - ✔B. 88305-26, 88304- During a craniectomy the surgeon asked for a consult and sent a frozen section of a large piece of tumor and sent it to pathology. The pathologist received a rubbery pinkish tan tissue measuring in aggregate 3 x 0.8 x 0.8 cm. The entire specimen is submitted in one block and also a gross and microscopic examination was performed on the tissue. The frozen section and the pathology report are sent back to the surgeon indicating that the tumor was a medulloblastoma. What CPT® code(s) will the pathologist report? A. 80500 B. 88331-26, 88307-
Physician orders a basic (80047) and comprehensive metabolic (80053) panels. Select the code(s) on how this is reported. A. 80053, 80047 B. 80053 C. 80047, 82040, 82247, 82310, 84075, 84155, 84460, 84450 D. 80053, 82330 - ✔D. 80053, 82330 A 4-year-old is getting over his cold and will be getting three immunizations in the pediatrician's office by the nurse. The first vaccination administered is the Polio vaccine intramuscularly. The next vaccination is the live influenza (LAIV3) administered in the nose. The last vaccination is the Varicella (live) by subcutaneous route. What CPT® codes are reported for the administration and vaccines? A. 90713, 90658, 90716, 90460, 90461 x 2 B. 90713, 90660, 90716, 90460, 90461 x 1 C. 90713, 90660, 90716, 90471, 90472, 90474 D. 90713, 90658, 90716, 90471, 90472, 90473 - ✔C. 90713, 90660, 90716, 90471, 90472, 90474 A patient with chronic renal failure is in the hospital being evaluated by his nephrologist after just placing a catheter into the peritoneal cavity for dialysis. The physician is evaluating the dwell time and running fluid out of the cavity to make sure the volume of dialysate and the concentration of electrolytes and glucose are correctly prescribed for this patient. What code should be reported for this service? A. 90935 B. 90937 C. 90947 D. 90945 - ✔D. 90945 An established patient had a comprehensive exam in which she has been diagnosed with dry eye syndrome in both eyes. The ophthalmologist measures the cornea for placement of the soft contact lens for treatment of this syndrome. What codes are reported by the ophthalmologist? A. 92014-25, 92071- B. 99214-25, 92072- C. 92014-25, 92325- D. 92014-25, 92310-50 - ✔A. 92014-25, 92071- A patient who is a singer has been hoarse for a few months following an upper respiratory infection. She is in a voice laboratory to have a laryngeal function study performed by an otolaryngologist. She starts off with the acoustic testing first. Before she moves on to the aerodynamic testing she complains of throat pain and is rescheduled to come back to have the other test performed. What CPT® code is reported? A. 92520 B. 92700 C. 92520- D. 92614-52 - ✔C. 92520-
Patient comes into see her primary care physician for a productive cough and shortness of breath. The physician takes a chest X-ray which indicates the patient has double pneumonia. Select the ICD-10-CM code(s) for this visit. A. J18.9, R05, R06. B. R05, R06.2, J18. C. J18. D. J15.9 - ✔C. J18. What is the correct way to code a patient having bradycardia due to Demerol that was correctly prescribed and properly administered? A. T40.2X1A, R00. B. T40.2X3A, R00. C. R00.1, T40.2X5A D. R00.1, T40.2X2A - ✔C. R00.1, T40.2X5A Which statement is TRUE when reporting pregnancy codes (O00-O9A): A. These codes can be used on the maternal and baby records. B. These codes have sequencing priority over codes from other chapters. C. Code Z33.1 should always be reported with these codes. D. The seventh character assigned to these codes only indicate a complication during the pregnancy. - ✔B. These codes have sequencing priority over codes from other chapters. A 66-year-old Medicare patient, who has a history of ulcerative colitis, presents for a colorectal cancer screening. The screening is performed via barium enema. What HCPCS Level II code is reported for this procedure? A. G B. G C. G D. G0121 - ✔C. G What is PHI? A. Physician-health care interchange B. Private health insurance C. Protected health information D. Provider identified incident-to - ✔C. Protected health information What is NOT included in CPT® surgical package? A. Typical postoperative follow-up care B. One related Evaluation and Management service on the same date of the procedure C. Returning to the operating room the next day for a complication resulting from the initial procedure D. Evaluating the patient in the post-anesthesia recovery area - ✔C. Returning to the operating room the next day for a complication resulting from the initial procedure Which statement is TRUE about reporting codes for diabetes mellitus?
A. If the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical record the default type is E11.- Type 2 diabetes mellitus. B. When a patient uses insulin, Type 1 is always reported. C. The age of the patient is a sole determining factor to report Type 1. D. When assigning codes for diabetes and its associated condition(s), the code(s) from category E08-E13 are not reported as a primary code. - ✔A. If the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical record the default type is E11.- Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which statement is TRUE for reporting external cause codes of morbidity (V00- Y99)? A. All external cause codes do not require a seventh character. B. Only report one external cause code to fully explain each cause. C. Report code Y92.9 if the place of occurrence is not stated. D. External cause codes should never be sequenced as a first-listed or primary code
introducer dilator was passed over the first wire and the wire and dilator were withdrawn. A ventricular lead was passed through the introducer, and the introducer was broken away in the routine fashion. A second introducer dilator was passed over the second guide wire and the wire and dilator were - ✔A. 33208 Patient has lung cancer in his upper right and middle lobes. Patient is in the operating suite to have a video-assisted thorascopy surgery (VATS). A 10-mm-zero- degree thoracoscope is inserted in the right pleural cavity through a port site placed in the ninth and seventh intercostal spaces. Lung was deflated. The tumor is in the right pleural. Both lobes were removed thorascopically. Port site closed. A chest tube was placed to suction and patient was sent to recovery in stable condition. Which CPT® code is reported for this procedure? A. 32482 B. 32484 C. 32670 D. 32671 - ✔C. 32670 The patient is a 58-year-old white male, one month status post pneumonectomy. He had a post pneumonectomy empyema treated with a tunneled cuffed pleural catheter which has been draining the cavity for one month with clear drainage. He has had no evidence of a block or pleural fistula. Therefore a planned return to surgery results in the removal of the catheter. The correct CPT® code is: A. 32440- B. 32035- C. 32036- D. 32552-58 - ✔D. 32552- This 67-year-old man presented with a history of progressive shortness of breath. He has had a diagnosis of a secundum atrioseptal defect for several years, and has had atrial fibrillation intermittently over this period of time. He was in atrial fibrillation when he came to the operating room, and with the patient cannulated and on bypass, The right atrium was then opened. A large 3 x 5 cm defect was noted at fossa ovalis, and this also included a second hole in the same general area. Both of these holes were closed with a single pericardial patch. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? A. 33675, Q21. B. 33647, Q21.1, R06. C. 33645, Q21.2, R06. D. 33641, Q21.1 - ✔D. 33641, Q21. An 82-year-old female had a CAT scan which revealed evidence of a proximal small bowel obstruction. She was taken to the Operating Room where an elliptical abdominal incision was made, excising the skin and subcutaneous tissue. There were extensive adhesions along the entire length of the small bowel. The omentum and bowel were stuck up to the anterior abdominal wall. Time consuming, tedious and spending an extra hour to lysis the adhesions to free up the entire length of the gastrointestinal tract from the ligament to Treitz to the ileocolic anastomosis. The correct CPT® code is:
55 year-old patient was admitted with massive gastric dilation. The endoscope was inserted with a catheter placement. The endoscope is passed through the cricopharyngeal muscle area without difficulty. Esophagus is normal, some chronic reflux changes at the esophagogastric junction noted. Stomach significant distention with what appears to be multiple encapsulated tablets in the stomach at least 20 to 30 of these are noted. Some of these are partially dissolved. Endoscope could not be engaged due to high grade narrowing in the pyloric channel, the duodenum was not examined. It seems to be a high grade outlet obstruction with a superimposed volvulus. A repeat examination is not planned at this time. What code should be used for this procedure? A. 43246- B. 43241- C. 43235 D. 43191 - ✔B. 43241- The patient is a 78-year-old white female with morbid obesity that presented with small bowel obstruction. She had surgery approximately one week ago and underwent exploration, which required a small bowel resection of the terminal ileum and anastomosis leaving her with a large inferior ventral hernia. Two days ago she started having drainage from her wound which has become more serious. She is now being taken back to the operating room. Reopening the original incision with a scalpel, the intestine was examined and the anastomosis was reopened , excised at both ends, and further excision of intestine. The fresh ends were created to perform another end- to-end anastomosis. The correct procedure code is: A. 44120- B. 44126- C. 44120- D. 44202-58 - ✔A. 44120- PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diverticulitis, perforated diverticula POST OPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diverticulitis, perforated diverticula PROCEDURE: Hartmann procedure, which is a sigmoid resection with Hartmann pouch and colostomy. DESCRIPTION OF THE PROCEDURE: Patient was prepped and draped in the supine position under general anesthesia. Prior to surgery patient was given 4.5 grams of Zosyn and Rocephin IV piggyback. A lower midline incision was made, abdomen was entered. Upon entry into the abdomen, there was an inflammatory mass in the pelvis and there was a large abscessed cavity, but no feces. The abscess cavity was drained and irrigated out. The left colon was immobilized, taken down the lateral perineal attachments. The sigmoid colon was mobilized. There was an inflammatory mass right at the area of the sigmoid colon consistent with a divertiliculitis or perforation with infection. Proximal to this in the distal left - ✔B. 44143 A 5-year-old male with a history of prematurity was found to have a chordee due to congenital hypospadias. He presents for surgical management for a plastic repair in straightening the abnormal curvature. Under general anesthesia, bands were placed
the spinal cord was relieved by removal of a tissue overgrowth around the foramen. Which CPT® code(s) is (are) used for this procedure? A. 63045-50, 63048- B. 63020-50, 63035-50, 63035- C. 63015- D. 63045, 63048 x 2 - ✔D. 63045, 63048 x 2 An extracapsular cataract removal is performed on the right eye by manually using an iris expansion device to expand the pupil. A phacomulsicfication unit was used to remove the nucleus and irrigation and aspiration was used to remove the residual cortex allowing the insertion of the intraocular lens. What CPT® code is reported? A. 66985 B. 66984 C. 66982 D. 66983 - ✔C. 66982 An infant who has chronic otitis media in the right and left ears was placed under general anesthesia and a radial incision was made in the posterior quadrant of the left and right tympanic membranes. A large amount of mucoid effusion was suctioned and then a ventilating tube was placed in both ears. What CPT® and ICD- 10-CM codes are reported? A. 69436-50, H65. B. 69436-50, H66. C. 69433-50, H65. D. 69421-50, H65.33 - ✔A. 69436-50, H65. A 50-year-old patient is coming to see her primary care physician for hypertension. The patient also discusses with her physician that the OBGYN office had just told her that her Pap smear came back with an abnormal reading and is worried because her aunt had passed away with cervical cancer. The physician documents she spent 40 minutes face-to-face time with the patient, and 25 minutes of that time is giving counseling on the awareness, other screening procedures and treatment if it turns out to be cervical cancer. What E/M code(s) is (are) reported for this visit? A. 99215 B. 99213, 99358 C. 99214, 99354 D. 99213 - ✔A. 99215 A patient was admitted yesterday to the hospital for possible gallstones. The following day the physician who admitted the patient performed a detailed history, a detailed exam and a medical decision making of low complexity. The physician tells her the test results have come back positive for gallstones and is recommending having a cholecystectomy. What code is reported for this evaluation and management service for the following day? A. 99253 B. 99221 C. 99233 D. 99234 - ✔C. 99233
A patient came in to the ER with wheezing and a rapid heart rate. The ER physician documents a comprehensive history, comprehensive exam and medical decision of moderate complexity. The patient has been given three nebulizer treatments. The ER physician has decided to place him in observation care for the acute asthma exacerbation. The ER physician will continue examining the patient and will order additional treatments until the wheezing subsides. Select the appropriate code(s) for this visit. A. 99284, 99219 B. 99219 C. 99284 D. 99235 - ✔B. 99219 A 6-month-old patient is administered general anesthesia to repair a cleft palate. What anesthesia code(s) is (are) reported for this procedure? A. 00170, 99100 B. 00172 C. 00172, 99100 D. 00176 - ✔C. 00172, 99100 A 50-year-old female had a left subcutaneous mastectomy for cancer. She now returns for reconstruction which is done with a single TRAM flap. Right mastopexy is done for asymmetry. Select the anesthesia code for this procedure. A. 00404 B. 00402 C. 00406 D. 00400 - ✔B. 00402 A patient is having knee replacement surgery. The surgeon requests that in addition to the general anesthesia for the procedure that the anesthesiologist also insert a continuous lumbar epidural infusion for postoperative pain management. The anesthesiologist performs postoperative management for two postoperative days. A. 01400-AA, 62326, 01996 x 2 B. 01402-AA, 62327, 01966 x 2 C. 01402-AA, 62326, 01996 x 2 D. 01404-AA, 62327 - ✔C. 01402-AA, 62326, 01996 x 2 A 35-year-old male sees his primary care physician complaining of fever with chills, cough and congestion. The physician performs a chest X-ray taking lateral and AP views in his office. The physician interprets the X-ray views and the patient is diagnosed with walking pneumonia. Which CPT® code is reported for the chest X- rays performed in the office and interpreted by the physician? A. 71046- B. 71047- C. 71046 D. 71045-26-TC - ✔C. 71046 This gentleman has localized prostate cancer and has chosen to have complete transrectal ultrasonography performed for dosimetry purposes. Following calculation of the planned transrectal ultrasound, guidance was provided for percutaneous placement of 1-125 seeds. Select the appropriate codes for this procedure.
A new patient is having a cardiovascular stress test done in his cardiologist's office. Before the test is started the physician documents a comprehensive history and exam and moderate complexity medical decision making. The physician will be supervising and interpreting the stress on the patient's heart during the test. What procedure codes are reported for this encounter? A. 93015-26, 99204- B. 93016, 93018, 99204- C. 93015, 99204- D. 93018-26, 99204-25 - ✔C. 93015, 99204- A cancer patient is coming in to have a chemotherapy infusion. The physician notes the patient is dehydrated and will first administer a hydration infusion. The infusion time was 1 hour and 30 minutes. Select the code(s) that is (are) reported for this encounter? A. 96360 B. 96360, 96361 C. 96365, 96366 D. 96422 - ✔A. 96360 A patient that has multiple sclerosis has been seeing a therapist for four visits. Today's visit the therapist will be performing a comprehensive reevaluation to determine the extent of progress. There was a revised plan assessing the changes in the patient's functional status. Initial profile was updated to reflect changes that affect future goals along with a revised plan of care. A total care of 30 minutes were spent in this re-evaluation. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes should be reported? A. 97168, Z51.89, G B. 97164, Z56.89, G C. 97167, G D. 97163, Z56.9, G35 - ✔A. 97168, Z51.89, G What is the term used for inflammation of the bone and bone marrow? A. Chondromatosis B. Osteochondritis C. Costochondritis D. Osteomyelitis - ✔D. Osteomyelitis The root word trich/o means: A. Hair B. Sebum C. Eyelid D. Trachea - ✔A. Hair Complete this series: Frontal lobe, Parietal lobe, Temporal lobe, ____________. A. Medulla lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Middle lobe D. Inferior lobe - ✔B. Occipital lobe
A patient is having pyeloplasty performed to treat an uretero-pelvic junction obstruction. What is being performed? A. Surgical repair of the bladder B. Removal of the kidney C. Cutting into the ureter D. Surgical reconstruction of the renal pelvis - ✔D. Surgical reconstruction of the renal pelvis A 27-year-old was frying chicken when an explosion of the oil had occurred and she sustained second-degree burns on her face (5%), third degree burns on both hands (5%). There was a total of 10 percent of the body surface that was burned. Select which ICD-10-CM codes are reported. A. T20.20XA, T23.301A, T23.302A, T31.10, X10.2XXA, Y93.G B. T23.301A, T23.302A, T20.20XA, T31.11, X10.2XXA, Y93.G C. T23.301A, T23.302A, T20.20XA, T31.10, X10.2XXA, Y93.G D. T23.601A, T23.602A, T20.60XA, T31.10, X10.2XXA, Y93.G3 - ✔C. T23.301A, T23.302A, T20.20XA, T31.10, X10.2XXA, Y93.G A patient that has cirrhosis of the liver just had an endoscopy performed showing hemorrhagic esophageal varices. The ICD-10-CM codes are reported: A. I85.01, K74. B. I85.11, K74. C. K74.60, I85. D. I85.00, K74.69 - ✔C. K74.60, I85. A 55-year-old-patient had a fracture of his left knee cap six months ago. The fracture has healed but he still has staggering gait in which he will be going to physical therapy. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? A. S82.002A, R26. B. R26.0, S82.002A C. S82.092S, R26. D. R26.0, S82.002S - ✔D. R26.0, S82.002S Which statement is TRUE about Z codes: A. Z codes are never reported as a primary code. B. Z codes are only reported with injury codes. C. Z codes may be used either as a primary code or a secondary code. D. Z codes are always reported as a secondary code. - ✔C. Z codes may be used either as a primary code or a secondary code. Patient with corneal degeneration is having a cornea transplant. The donor cornea had been previously prepared by punching a central corneal button with a guillotine punch. This had been stored in Optisol GS. It was gently rinsed with BSS Plus solution and was then transferred to the patient's eye on a Paton spatula and sutured with 12 interrupted 10-0 nylon sutures. Select the HCPCS Level II code for the corneal tissue. A. V B. V C. V D. V2799 - ✔B. V The patient presents to the office for an injection. Joint prepped using sterile technique. Muscle group location: gluteus maximus. Sterilely injected with 40 mg of