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AAPC CPC Practice Questions
A 46-year-old female had a previous biopsy that indicated positive malignant margins anteriorly on the right side of her neck. A 0.5 cm margin was drawn out and a 15 blade scalpel was used for full excision of an 8 cm lesion. Layered closure was performed after the removal. The specimen was sent for permanent histopathologic examination. What are the CPT® code(s) for this procedure? A. 11626 B. 11626, 12004- C. 11626, 12044- D. 11626, 13132-51, 13133 - answer C. 11626, 12044- A 30-year-old female is having 15 sq cm debridement performed on an infected ulcer with eschar on the right foot. Using sharp dissection, the ulcer was debrided all the way to down to the bone of the foot. The bone had to be minimally trimmed because of a sharp point at the end of the metatarsal. After debriding the area, there was minimal bleeding because of very poor circulation of the foot. It seems that the toes next to the ulcer may have some involvement and cultures were taken. The area was dressed with sterile saline and dressings and then wrapped. What CPT® code should be reported? A. 11043 B. 11012 C. 11044 D. 11042 - answer C. 11044 A 64-year-old female who has multiple sclerosis fell from her walker and landed on a glass table. She lacerated her forehead, cheek and chin and the total length of these lacerations was 6 cm. Her right arm and left leg had deep cuts measuring 5 cm on each extremity. Her right hand and right foot had a total of 3 cm lacerations. The ED physician repaired the lacerations as follows: The forehead, cheek, and chin had debridement and cleaning of glass debris with the lacerations being closed with one layer closure, 6-0 Prolene sutures. The arm and leg were repaired by layered closure, 6-0 Vicryl subcutaneous sutures and Prolene sutures on the skin. The hand and foot were closed with adhesive strips. Select the appropriate procedure codes for this visit. A. 99283-25, 12014, 12034-59, 12002-59, 11042- B. 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59, 12002- C. 99283-25, 12014, 12034-59, 11042- D. 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59 - answer D. 99283-25, 12053, 12034- A 52-year-old female has a mass growing on her right flank for several years. It has finally gotten significantly larger and is beginning to bother her. She is brought to the
Operating Room for definitive excision. An incision was made directly overlying the mass. The mass was down into the subcutaneous tissue and the surgeon encountered a well encapsulated lipoma approximately 4 centimeters. This was excised primarily bluntly with a few attachments divided with electrocautery. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? A. 21932, D17. B. 21935, D17. C. 21931, D17. D. 21925, D17.9 - answer C. 21931, D17. Question 5 PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Right scaphoid fracture. TYPE OF PROCEDURE: Open reduction and internal fixation of right scaphoid fracture. DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The patient was brought to the operating room; anesthesia having been administered. The right upper extremity was prepped and draped in a sterile manner. The limb was elevated, exsanguinated, and a pneumatic arm tourniquet was elevated. An incision was made over the dorsal radial aspect of the right wrist. Skin flaps were elevated. Cutaneous nerve branches were identified and very gently retracted. The interval between the second and third dorsal compartment tendons was identified and entered. The respective tendons were retracted. A dorsal capsulotomy incision was made, and the fracture was visualized. There did not appear to be any type of significant defect at the fracture site. A 0.045 Kirschner wire was then used as a guidewire, extending from t - answer A. 25628-RT An infant with genu valgum is brought to the operating room to have a bilateral medial distal femur hemiepiphysiodesis done. On each knee, the C-arm was used to localize the growth plate. With the growth plate localized, an incision was made medially on both sides. This was taken down to the fascia, which was opened. The periosteum was not opened. The Orthofix® figure-of-eight plate was placed and checked with X-ray. We then irrigated and closed the medial fascia with 0 Vicryl suture. The skin was closed with 2-0 Vicryl and 3-0 Monocryl®. What procedure code is reported? A. 27470- B. 27475- C. 27477- D. 27485-50 - answer D. 27485- The patient is a 67-year-old gentleman with metastatic colon cancer recently operated on for a brain metastasis, now for placement of an Infuse-A-Port for continued chemotherapy. The left subclavian vein was located with a needle and a guide wire placed. This was confirmed to be in the proper position fluoroscopically. A transverse incision was made just inferior to this and a subcutaneous pocket created just inferior to this. After tunneling, the introducer was placed over the guide wire and the power port line was placed with the introducer and the introducer was peeled away. The tip was placed in the appropriate position under fluoroscopic guidance and the catheter trimmed to the appropriate length and secured to the power port device. The locking mechanism was fully engaged. The port was placed in the subcutaneous pocket and everything sat
a small defect was clearly visualized. There was some omentum, which was adhered to the hernia and this was delivered back into the peritoneal cavity. The mesh was tacked on to cover the defect. What procedure code(s) is (are) reported? A. 49560, 49568 B. 49652 C. 49653 D. 49652, 49568 - answer B. 49652 The patient is a 50-year-old gentleman who presented to the emergency room with signs and symptoms of acute appendicitis with possible rupture. He has been brought to the operating room. An infraumbilical incision was made which a 5-mm VersaStep™ trocar was inserted. A 5-mm 0- degree laparoscope was introduced. A second 5-mm trocar was placed suprapubically and a 12-mm trocar in the left lower quadrant. A window was made in the mesoappendix using blunt dissection with no rupture noted. The base of the appendix was then divided and placed into an Endo-catch bag and the 12-mm defect was brought out. Select the appropriate code for this procedure: A. 44970 B. 44950 C. 44960 D. 44979 - answer A. 44970 A 45-year-old male is going to donate his kidney to his son. Operating ports where placed in standard position and the scope was inserted. Dissection of the renal artery and vein was performed isolating the kidney. The kidney was suspended only by the renal artery and vein as well as the ureter. A stapler was used to divide the vein just above the aorta and three clips across the ureter, extracting the kidney. This was placed on ice and sent to the recipient room. The correct CPT® code is: A. 50543 B. 50547 C. 50300 D. 50320 - answer B. 50547 A 67-year-old female having urinary incontinence with intrinsic sphincter deficiency is having a cystoscopy performed with a placement of a sling. An incision was made over the mid urethra dissected laterally to urethropelvic ligament. Cystoscopy revealed no penetration of the bladder. The edges of the sling were weaved around the junction of the urethra and brought up to the suprapubic incision. A hemostat was then placed between the sling and the urethra, ensuring no tension. What CPT® code(s) is (are) reported? A. 57288 B. 57287 C. 57288, 52000- D. 51992, 52000-51 - answer A. 57288 A 16-day-old male baby is in the OR for a repeat circumcision due to redundant foreskin that caused circumferential scarring from the original circumcision. Anesthetic was
injected and an incision was made at base of the foreskin. Foreskin was pulled back and the excess foreskin was taken off and the two raw skin surfaces were sutured together to create a circumferential anastomosis. Select the appropriate code for this surgery: A. 54150 B. 54160 C. 54163 D. 54164 - answer C. 54163 5 year-old female has a history of post void dribbling. She was found to have extensive labial adhesions, which have been unresponsive to topical medical management. She is brought to the operating suite in a supine position. Under general anesthesia the labia majora is retracted and the granulating chronic adhesions were incised midline both anteriorly and posteriorly. The adherent granulation tissue was excised on either side. What code should be used for this procedure? A. 58660 B. 58740 C. 57061 D. 56441 - answer D. 56441 The patient is a 64 year-old female who is undergoing a removal of a previously implanted Medtronic pain pump and catheter due to a possible infection. The back was incised; dissection was carried down to the previously placed catheter. There was evidence of infection with some fat necrosis in which cultures were taken. The intrathecal portion of the catheter was removed. Next the pump pocket was incised and the pump was dissected from the anterior fascia. A 7-mm Blake drain was placed in the pump pocket through a stab incision and secured to the skin with interrupted Prolene. The pump pocket was copiously irrigated with saline and closed in two layers. What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes for this procedure? A. 62365, 62350-51, T85.898A, Z46. B. 62360, 62355-51, T85.79XA C. 62365, 62355-51, T85.79XA D. 36590, I97.42, T85.898A - answer C. 62365, 62355-51, T85.79XA The patient is a 73 year-old gentleman who was noted to have progressive gait instability over the past several months. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrated a ventriculomegaly. It was recommended that the patient proceed forward with right frontal ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement with Codman® programmable valve. What is the correct code for this surgery? A. 62220 B. 62223 C. 62190 D. 62192 - answer B. 62223 What is the CPT® code for the decompression of the median nerve found in the space in the wrist on the palmar side?
morbidities. What is the correct CPT® and ICD-10-CM code for the anesthesia services? A. 00860-P1, C64.9, E11. B. 00840-P3, C65.9, E11. C. 00862-P2, C65.9, E11. D. 00868-P2, C79.02, E11.9 - answer C. 00862-P2, C65.9, E11. A healthy 32-year-old with a closed distal radius fracture received monitored anesthesia care for an ORIF of the distal radius. What is the code for the anesthesia service? A. 01830-P B. 01860-QS-P C. 01830-QS-P D. 01860-QS-G9-P1 - answer C. 01830-QS-P A 10-month-old child is taken to the operating room for removal of a laryngeal mass. What is (are) the appropriate anesthesia code(s) to report? A. 00320 B. 00326 C. 00320, 99100 D. 00326, 99100 - answer B. 00326 A catheter is placed in the left common femoral artery which was directed into the right the external iliac (antegrade). Dye was injected and a right lower extremity angiogram was performed which revealed patency of the common femoral and profunda femoris. The catheter was then manipulated into the superficial femoral artery (retrograde) in which a lower extremity angiogram was performed which revealed occlusion from the popliteal to the tibioperoneal artery. What are the procedure codes that describe this procedure? A. 36217, 75736- B. 36247, 75716- C. 36217, 75756- D. 36247, 75710-26 - answer D. 36247, 75710- 56-year-old female is having a bilateral mammogram with computer aid detection conducted as a screening because the patient has a family history of breast cancer. She does not presently have signs or symptoms of breast disease. What radiological services are reported? A. 77065 x 2 B. 77065, 77066 C. 77067 D. 77066 - answer C. 77067 A 63-year-old patient with bilateral ureteral obstruction presents to an outpatient facility for placement of a right and left ureteral stent along with an interpretation of a retrograde pyelogram. What codes should be reported? A. 52332, 74425
B. 52332-50, 74420-
C. 52005, 74420
D. 52005-50, 74425-26 - answer B. 52332-50, 74420- Patient is coming in for a pathological examination for ischemia in the left leg. The first specimen is 1.5 cm of a single portion of arterial plaque taken from the left common femoral artery. The second specimen is 8.5 x 2.7 cm across x 1.5 cm in thickness of a cutaneous ulceration with fibropurulent material on the left leg. What surgical pathology codes should be reported for the pathologist? A. 88304-26, 88302- B. 88305-26, 88304- C. 88307-26, 88305- D. 88309-26, 88307-26 - answer B. 88305-26, 88304- During a craniectomy the surgeon asked for a consult and sent a frozen section of a large piece of tumor and sent it to pathology. The pathologist received a rubbery pinkish tan tissue measuring in aggregate 3 x 0.8 x 0.8 cm. The entire specimen is submitted in one block and also a gross and microscopic examination was performed on the tissue. The frozen section and the pathology report are sent back to the surgeon indicating that the tumor was a medulloblastoma. What CPT® code(s) will the pathologist report? A. 80500 B. 88331-26, 88307- C. 80502 D. 88331-26, 88332-26, 88304-26 - answer B. 88331-26, 88307- Physician orders a basic (80047) and comprehensive metabolic (80053) panels. Select the code(s) on how this is reported. A. 80053, 80047 B. 80053 C. 80047, 82040, 82247, 82310, 84075, 84155, 84460, 84450 D. 80053, 82330 - answer D. 80053, 82330 A 4-year-old is getting over his cold and will be getting three immunizations in the pediatrician's office by the nurse. The first vaccination administered is the Polio vaccine intramuscularly. The next vaccination is the live influenza (LAIV3) administered in the nose. The last vaccination is the Varicella (live) by subcutaneous route. What CPT® codes are reported for the administration and vaccines? A. 90713, 90658, 90716, 90460, 90461 x 2 B. 90713, 90660, 90716, 90460, 90461 x 1 C. 90713, 90660, 90716, 90471, 90472, 90474 D. 90713, 90658, 90716, 90471, 90472, 90473 - answer C. 90713, 90660, 90716, 90471, 90472, 90474 A patient with chronic renal failure is in the hospital being evaluated by his nephrologist after just placing a catheter into the peritoneal cavity for dialysis. The physician is evaluating the dwell time and running fluid out of the cavity to make sure the volume of
Ventral, umbilical, spigelian and incisional are types of: A. Surgical approaches B. Hernias C. Organs found in the digestive system D. Cardiac catheterizations - answer B. Hernias Fracturing the acetabulum involves what area? A. Skull B. Shoulder C. Pelvis D. Leg - answer C. Pelvis When a patient is having a tenotomy performed on the abductor hallucis muscle, where is this muscle located? A. Foot B. Upper Arm C. Upper Leg D. Hand - answer A. Foot A 44-year-old had a history of adenocarcinoma of the cervix on a conization in March 20XX who has been followed with twice-yearly endocervical curettages and Pap smears that were all negative for two years, per the recommendation of a GYN oncologist. Her Pap smear results from the last visit noted atypical glandular cells. In light of this, she underwent a colposcopy and the biopsy of the normal-appearing cervix on colposcopy was benign. The endocervical curettage was benign endocervical glands, and the endometrial sampling was benign endometrium. In light of the fact that she had had previous atypical glandular cells that led to diagnosis of adenocarcinoma and the concerns that this may have recurred, she had been recommended for a cone biopsy and fractional dilatation and curettage, which she is undergoing today. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported? A. R87.619, C53. B. C C. R87.619, Z85. D. Z12.4, Z85.41 - answer C. R87.619, Z85. Patient comes into see her primary care physician for a productive cough and shortness of breath. The physician takes a chest X-ray which indicates the patient has double pneumonia. Select the ICD-10-CM code(s) for this visit. A. J18.9, R05, R06. B. R05, R06.2, J18. C. J18. D. J15.9 - answer C. J18. What is the correct way to code a patient having bradycardia due to Demerol that was correctly prescribed and properly administered?
A. T40.2X1A, R00.
B. T40.2X3A, R00.
C. R00.1, T40.2X5A
D. R00.1, T40.2X2A - answer C. R00.1, T40.2X5A Which statement is TRUE when reporting pregnancy codes (O00-O9A): A. These codes can be used on the maternal and baby records. B. These codes have sequencing priority over codes from other chapters. C. Code Z33.1 should always be reported with these codes. D. The seventh character assigned to these codes only indicate a complication during the pregnancy. - answer B. These codes have sequencing priority over codes from other chapters. A 66-year-old Medicare patient, who has a history of ulcerative colitis, presents for a colorectal cancer screening. The screening is performed via barium enema. What HCPCS Level II code is reported for this procedure? A. G B. G C. G D. G0121 - answer C. G What is PHI? A. Physician-health care interchange B. Private health insurance C. Protected health information D. Provider identified incident-to - answer C. Protected health information What is NOT included in CPT® surgical package? A. Typical postoperative follow-up care B. One related Evaluation and Management service on the same date of the procedure C. Returning to the operating room the next day for a complication resulting from the initial procedure D. Evaluating the patient in the post-anesthesia recovery area - answer C. Returning to the operating room the next day for a complication resulting from the initial procedure Which statement is TRUE about reporting codes for diabetes mellitus? A. If the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical record the default type is E11.- Type 2 diabetes mellitus. B. When a patient uses insulin, Type 1 is always reported. C. The age of the patient is a sole determining factor to report Type 1. D. When assigning codes for diabetes and its associated condition(s), the code(s) from category E08-E13 are not reported as a primary code. - answer A. If the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical record the default type is E11.- Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which statement is TRUE for reporting external cause codes of morbidity (V00-Y99)?
was completely intact. An anterior portal was established high in the rotator interval. The rotator interval was very thick and contracted. Adhesions were destroyed with electrocautery and the Bovie. The superior glenohumeral ligament, the middle glenohumeral ligament and the tendinous portion of the subscapularis were released. The arthroscope was placed anteriorly, adhesions were destroyed and the shaver was used to debride some of the posterior capsule and the posterior capsule was released - answer D. 29825-LT After adequate anesthesia was obtained the patient was turned prone in a kneeling position on the spinal table. A lower midline lumbar incision was made and the soft tissues divided down to the spinous processes. The soft tissues were stripped away from the lamina down to the facets and discectomies and laminectomies were then carried out at L3-4, L4-5 and L5-S1. Interbody fusions were set up for the lower three levels using the Danek allografts and augmented with structural autogenous bone from the iliac crest. The posterior instrumentation of a 5.5 mm diameter titanium rod was then cut to the appropriate length and bent to confirm to the normal lordotic curve. It was then slid immediately onto the bone screws and at each level compression was carried out as each of the two bolts were tightened so that the interbody fusions would be snug and as tight as possible. Select the appropriate CPT® codes for this visit? A. - answer C. 22630, 22632 x 2, 22842, 20938, 20930 PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Displaced impacted Colles fracture, left distal radius and ulna. POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Displaced impacted Colles fracture, left distal radius and ulna. OPERATIVE PROCEDURE: Reduction with application of an external fixation system, left wrist fracture FINDINGS: The patient is a 46 year-old right- hand-dominant female who fell off stairs 4 to 5 days ago sustaining an impacted distal radius fracture with possible intraarticular component and an associated ulnar styloid fracture. Today in surgery, fracture was reduced anatomically and an external fixation system was applied. PROCEDURE: Under satisfactory general anesthesia, the fracture was manipulated and C-arm images were checked. The left upper extremity was prepped and draped in the usual sterile orthopedic fashion. Two small incisions were made over the second metacarpal and after removing soft tissues including tendinous structures out of - answer B. 25605- LT, 20690- A 79-year-old male with symptomatic bradycardia and syncope is taken to the Operating Suite where an insertion of a DDD pacemaker will be performed. After the anesthesiologist provided moderate sedation, the cardiologist performed a left subclavian venipuncture was carried out. A guide wire was passed through the needle, and the needle was withdrawn. A second subclavian venipuncture was performed, a second guide wire was passed and the second needle was withdrawn. An oblique incision in the deltopectoral area incorporating the wire exit sites. A subcutaneous pocket was created with the cautery on the pectoralis fascia. An introducer dilator was passed over the first wire and the wire and dilator were withdrawn. A ventricular lead was passed through the introducer, and the introducer was broken away in the routine fashion. A second introducer dilator was passed over the second guide wire and the wire and dilator were - answer A. 33208
Patient has lung cancer in his upper right and middle lobes. Patient is in the operating suite to have a video-assisted thorascopy surgery (VATS). A 10-mm-zero-degree thoracoscope is inserted in the right pleural cavity through a port site placed in the ninth and seventh intercostal spaces. Lung was deflated. The tumor is in the right pleural. Both lobes were removed thorascopically. Port site closed. A chest tube was placed to suction and patient was sent to recovery in stable condition. Which CPT® code is reported for this procedure? A. 32482 B. 32484 C. 32670 D. 32671 - answer C. 32670 The patient is a 58-year-old white male, one month status post pneumonectomy. He had a post pneumonectomy empyema treated with a tunneled cuffed pleural catheter which has been draining the cavity for one month with clear drainage. He has had no evidence of a block or pleural fistula. Therefore a planned return to surgery results in the removal of the catheter. The correct CPT® code is: A. 32440- B. 32035- C. 32036- D. 32552-58 - answer D. 32552- This 67-year-old man presented with a history of progressive shortness of breath. He has had a diagnosis of a secundum atrioseptal defect for several years, and has had atrial fibrillation intermittently over this period of time. He was in atrial fibrillation when he came to the operating room, and with the patient cannulated and on bypass, The right atrium was then opened. A large 3 x 5 cm defect was noted at fossa ovalis, and this also included a second hole in the same general area. Both of these holes were closed with a single pericardial patch. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? A. 33675, Q21. B. 33647, Q21.1, R06. C. 33645, Q21.2, R06. D. 33641, Q21.1 - answer D. 33641, Q21. An 82-year-old female had a CAT scan which revealed evidence of a proximal small bowel obstruction. She was taken to the Operating Room where an elliptical abdominal incision was made, excising the skin and subcutaneous tissue. There were extensive adhesions along the entire length of the small bowel. The omentum and bowel were stuck up to the anterior abdominal wall. Time consuming, tedious and spending an extra hour to lysis the adhesions to free up the entire length of the gastrointestinal tract from the ligament to Treitz to the ileocolic anastomosis. The correct CPT® code is: A. 44005 B. 44180-
A 5-year-old male with a history of prematurity was found to have a chordee due to congenital hypospadias. He presents for surgical management for a plastic repair in straightening the abnormal curvature. Under general anesthesia, bands were placed around the base of the penis and incisions were made degloving the penis circumferentially. The foreskin was divided in Byers flaps and the penile skin was reapproximated at the 12 o'clock position. Two Byers flaps were reapproximated, recreating a mucosal collar which was then criss- crossed and trimmed in the midline in order to accommodate median raphe reconstruction. This was reconstructed with use of a horizontal mattress suture. The shaft skin was then approximated to the mucosal collar with sutures correcting the defect. Which CPT® code should be used? A. 54304 B. 54340 C. 54400 D. 54440 - answer A. 54304 A 22-year-old is 14 weeks pregnant and wants to terminate the pregnancy. She has consented for a D&E. She was brought to the operating room where MAC anesthesia was given. She was then placed in the dorsal lithotomy position and a weighted speculum was placed into her posterior vaginal vault. Cervix was identified and dilated. A 6.5-cm suction catheter hooked up to a suction evacuator was placed and products of conception were evacuated. A medium size curette was then used to curette her endometrium. There was noted to be a small amount of remaining products of conception in her left cornua. Once again the suction evacuator was placed and the remaining products of conception were evacuated. At this point she had a good endometrial curetting with no further products of conception noted. Which CPT® code should be used? A. 59840 B. 59841 C. 59812 D. 59851 - answer B. 59841 A 37-year-old female has menorrhagia and wants permanent sterilization. The patient was placed in Allen stirrups in the operating room. Under anesthesia the cervix was dilated and the hysteroscope was advanced to the endometrium into the uterine cavity. No polyps or fibroids were seen. The Novasure was used for endometrial ablation. A knife was then used to make an incision in the right lower quadrant and left lower quadrant with 5-mm trocars inserted under direct visualization with no injury to any abdominal contents. Laparoscopic findings revealed the uterus, ovaries and fallopian tubes to be normal. The appendix was normal as were the upper quadrants. Because of the patient's history of breast cancer and desire for no further children, it was decided to take out both the tubes and ovaries. This had been discussed with the patient prior to surgery. What are the codes for these procedures? A. 58660, 58353- B. 5866 - answer B. 58661, 58563-
MRI reveals patient has cervical stenosis. It was determined he should undergo bilateral cervical laminectomy at C3 through C6 and fusion. The edges of the laminectomy were then cleaned up with a Kerrison and foraminotomies were done at C4, C5, and,C6. The stenosis is central; a facetectomy is performed by using a burr. Nerve root canals were freed by additional resection of the facet, and compression of the spinal cord was relieved by removal of a tissue overgrowth around the foramen. Which CPT® code(s) is (are) used for this procedure? A. 63045-50, 63048- B. 63020-50, 63035-50, 63035- C. 63015- D. 63045, 63048 x 2 - answer D. 63045, 63048 x 2 An extracapsular cataract removal is performed on the right eye by manually using an iris expansion device to expand the pupil. A phacomulsicfication unit was used to remove the nucleus and irrigation and aspiration was used to remove the residual cortex allowing the insertion of the intraocular lens. What CPT® code is reported? A. 66985 B. 66984 C. 66982 D. 66983 - answer C. 66982 An infant who has chronic otitis media in the right and left ears was placed under general anesthesia and a radial incision was made in the posterior quadrant of the left and right tympanic membranes. A large amount of mucoid effusion was suctioned and then a ventilating tube was placed in both ears. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? A. 69436-50, H65. B. 69436-50, H66. C. 69433-50, H65. D. 69421-50, H65.33 - answer A. 69436-50, H65. A 50-year-old patient is coming to see her primary care physician for hypertension. The patient also discusses with her physician that the OBGYN office had just told her that her Pap smear came back with an abnormal reading and is worried because her aunt had passed away with cervical cancer. The physician documents she spent 40 minutes face-to-face time with the patient, and 25 minutes of that time is giving counseling on the awareness, other screening procedures and treatment if it turns out to be cervical cancer. What E/M code(s) is (are) reported for this visit? A. 99215 B. 99213, 99358 C. 99214, 99354 D. 99213 - answer A. 99215 A patient was admitted yesterday to the hospital for possible gallstones. The following day the physician who admitted the patient performed a detailed history, a detailed exam and a medical decision making of low complexity. The physician tells her the test
views in his office. The physician interprets the X-ray views and the patient is diagnosed with walking pneumonia. Which CPT® code is reported for the chest X-rays performed in the office and interpreted by the physician? A. 71046- B. 71047- C. 71046 D. 71045-26-TC - answer C. 71046 This gentleman has localized prostate cancer and has chosen to have complete transrectal ultrasonography performed for dosimetry purposes. Following calculation of the planned transrectal ultrasound, guidance was provided for percutaneous placement of 1-125 seeds. Select the appropriate codes for this procedure. A. 55920, 76965- B. 55876, 76942- C. 55860, 76873- D. 55875, 76965-26 - answer D. 55875, 76965- A 76-year-old female had a ground level fall when she tripped over her dog earlier this evening in her apartment. The Emergency Department took X-rays of the left wrist in oblique and lateral views which revealed a displaced distal radius fracture, type I open left wrist. What radiological service and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? A. 73100-26, S52.502B, W18.31XA, Y92. B. 73110-26, S52.602A, W18.31XA, Y92. C. 73115-26, S52.502A, W18.31XA, Y92. D. 73100-26, S52.602B, W18.31XA, Y92.039 - answer A. 73100-26, S52.502B, W18.31XA, Y92. An 18-year-old female with a history of depression comes into the ER in a coma. The ER physician orders a drug screen on antidepressants, phenothiazines, and benzodiazepines. The lab performs a screening for single drug class using an immunoassay in a random access chemistry analyzer. Presence of antidepressants is found and a drug confirmation is performed to identify the particular antidepressant. What correct CPT® codes are reported? A. 80307, 80338 B. 80305, 80338 C. 80306 x 3, 80332 D. 80307 x 3, 80333 - answer A. 80307, 80338 A patient uses Topiramate to control his seizures. He comes in every two months to have a therapeutic drug testing performed to assess serum plasma levels of this medication. What lab code(s) is (are) reported for this testing? A. 80305 B. 80375 C. 80201 D. 80306, 80375 - answer C. 80201
Patient that is a borderline diabetic has been sent to the laboratory to have an oral glucose tolerance test. Patient drank the glucose and five blood specimens were taken every 30 to 60 minutes up to three hours to determine how quickly the glucose is cleared from the blood. What code(s) is (are) reported for this test? A. 82947 x 5 B. 82946 C. 80422 D. 82951, 82952 x 2 - answer D. 82951, 82952 x 2 A patient with severe asthma exacerbation has been admitted. The admitting physician orders a blood gas for oxygen saturation only. The admitting physician performs the arterial puncture drawing blood for a blood gas reading on oxygen saturation only. The physician draws it again in an hour to measure how much oxygen the blood is carrying. Select the codes for reporting this service. A. 82805, 82805- B. 82810, 82810- C. 82803, 82803- D. 82805, 82805-90 - answer B. 82810, 82810- A new patient is having a cardiovascular stress test done in his cardiologist's office. Before the test is started the physician documents a comprehensive history and exam and moderate complexity medical decision making. The physician will be supervising and interpreting the stress on the patient's heart during the test. What procedure codes are reported for this encounter? A. 93015-26, 99204- B. 93016, 93018, 99204- C. 93015, 99204- D. 93018-26, 99204-25 - answer C. 93015, 99204- A cancer patient is coming in to have a chemotherapy infusion. The physician notes the patient is dehydrated and will first administer a hydration infusion. The infusion time was 1 hour and 30 minutes. Select the code(s) that is (are) reported for this encounter? A. 96360 B. 96360, 96361 C. 96365, 96366 D. 96422 - answer A. 96360 A patient that has multiple sclerosis has been seeing a therapist for four visits. Today's visit the therapist will be performing a comprehensive reevaluation to determine the extent of progress. There was a revised plan assessing the changes in the patient's functional status. Initial profile was updated to reflect changes that affect future goals along with a revised plan of care. A total care of 30 minutes were spent in this re- evaluation. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes should be reported? A. 97168, Z51.89, G B. 97164, Z56.89, G C. 97167, G
