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AAPC CPC FINAL EXAM REAL EXAM 3 LATEST
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The minimum necessary rule is based on sound current practice that protected health information should NOT be used or disclosed when it is not necessary to satisfy a particular purpose or carry out a function. What does this mean? a. Staff members are allowed to access any medical record without restriction b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access to protected health information. c. Practices should only provide minimum necessary information to clients. d. All of the above. - ANSWER>b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent EHR stands for: a. Electronic health record b. Extended health record c. Electronic health response d. Established health record - ANSWER>a. Electronic health record The AAPC offers over 500 local chapters across the country for the purpose of a. Continuing education and networking b. Membership dues c. Regulations and bylaws d. Financial management - ANSWER>a. Continuing education and networking What does the abbreviation MAC stand for? a. Medicaid Alert Contractor b. Medicare Advisory Contractor c. Medicare Administrative Contractor d. Medicaid Administrative Contractor - ANSWER>c. Medicare Administrative Contractor
The OIG recommends that provider practices enforce disciplinary actions through well publicized compliance guidelines to ensure actions that are. a. Permanent b. Consistent and appropriate c. Frequent d. Swift and enforceable - ANSWER>b. Consistent and appropriate Through which vessel is oxygenated blood returned to the heart from the lungs? a. Pulmonary vein b. Bronchial vein c. Pulmonary artery d. Bronchial artery - ANSWER>a. Pulmonary vein Muscle is attached to bone by what method? a. Tendons, ligaments, and directly to bone b. Tendons, aponeurosis, and directly to bone c. Ligaments, aponeurosis, and directly to bone d. Tendons and cartilage - ANSWER>b. Tendons, aponeurosis, and directly to bone Lacrimal glands are responsible for which of the following? a. Production of tears b. Production of vitreous c. Production of mydriatic agents d. Production of zonules - ANSWER>a. Production of tears Melasma is defined as: a. Lines where the skin has been stretched b. A discharge of mucus and blood c. A dark vertical line appearing on the abdomen d. Brownish pigmentation appearing on the face - ANSWER>d. Brownish pigmentation appearing on the face A gonioscopy is an examination of what part of the eye: a. Anterior chamber of the eye b. Lacrimal duct c. Interior surface of the eye
A 54 - year-old male goes to his primary care provider with dizziness. On physical exam his blood pressure is 200/130. After a complete work-up, including laboratory tests, the provider makes a diagnosis of end stage renal disease and hypertension. What are the appropriate diagnosis codes for this encounter? d. I12.0 - ANSWER>a. I12.0, N18. A 32 - year-old male was seen in the ambulatory surgery center ASC for removal of two lipomas. One was located on his back and the other was located on the right forearm. Both involved subcutaneous tissue. What ICD- 10 - CM code(s) is/are reported? a. D17. b. D17. c. D17.1, D17. d. D17.21, D17.1 - ANSWER>d. D17.21, D17. 1 A 33-year-old client visits his primary care provider to discuss a lap band procedure for his morbid obesity. His caloric intake is in excess of 4,000 calories per day and his BMI is currently 45. What ICD- 10 - CM code(s) is/are reported? A 58 - year-old client sees the provider for confusion and loss of memory. The provider diagnoses the client with early onset stages of Alzheimer's disease with dementia. What ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. F02.80, G30.0, F29, F41. b. G30.0, F02. c. F02.80, G30. d. G30.0, F02.80, F29, R41.3 - ANSWER>b. G30.0, F02. What would be considered an adverse effect? a. Shortness of breath when running b. Rash developing when taking penicillin b. I10, N18. c. I10, N18. a. I12.0, N18. d. E66.01, Z68.45 - ANSWER>>a. E66.01, Z68. c. E66. b. E66.3, Z68. a. E66.01, Z68.
the lowest stage for that si a. When a pressure ulcer is at on stage and progresses to the higher stage, report c. Hemorrhaging after a vaginal delivery d. Wound infection after surgery - ANSWER>b. Rash developing when taking penicillin What is a TRUE statement in reporting pressure ulcers? te. b. Two codes are assigned when a client is admitted with a pressure ulcer that evolves to another stage during the admission. c. When documentation does not provide the stage of the pressure ulcer, report the unstageable pressure ulcer code(L89.95). d. The site of the ulcer and the stage of the ulcer are reported with two separate codes. - ANSWER>b. Two codes are assigned when a client is admitted with a pressure ulcer that evolves to another stage during the admission. A child has a splinter under the right middle fingernail. What ICD- 10 - CM code is reported? a. S61.222A b. S61.227A c. S61.242A d. S60.452A - ANSWER>d. S60.452A A 16-year-old male is brought to the ED by his mother. He was riding his bicycle in the park when he fell off the bike. The client's right arm is painful to touch, discolored, and swollen. The X-ray shows a closed fracture of the ulna. What ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. S52.201A, V19.9XXA, Y92. b. S52.201A, V18.4XXA, Y92. c. S52.201A, V18.0XXA, Y92. d. S52.209A, V18.4XXA, Y92.830 - ANSWER>c. S52.201A, V18.0XXA, Y92. A 12 - month-old receives the following vaccinations: Hepatitis B, Hib, Varicella, and Mumps-measles-rubella. What ICD- 10 - CM code(s) is/are reported for the vaccinations? a. B19.10, B01.9, B26.9, B05.9, B06.9, Z b. Z23, B19.10, B01.9, B26.9, B05.9, B06. c. Z d. B19.10, B01.9, B26.9, B05.9, B06.9 - ANSWER>c. Z The Table of Drugs in the HCPCS Level II book indicates various medication routes of
black mark on his forehead. I offered to excise the metal. He wanted me - ANSWER>>a. 10121, L92.3, Z18.10, Z85. to be a black-colored piece of stained metal; I felt it could potentially cause a permanent was removed. There was a granuloma capsule around this, containing what appeared the location. I incised a thin ellipse over the mass to give better access to it; the mass infiltrated with local anesthetic. I had drawn for him how I would incise over the foreign body. He observed this in the mirror so he could understand the surgery and agree on applied. What CPT® codes are reported? removed was 2400 cc. The incisions were closed and a compression garment was c. D79. d. C79.2 - ANSWER>a. C44. In ICD- 10 - CM, what type of burn is considered corrosion? - ANSWER>Burns due to chemicals Joe has a terrible problem with ingrown toenails. He goes to the podiatrist to have a nail permanently removed along with the nail matrix. What CPT® code is reported? a. 11720 b. 11730 c. 11750 d. 11765 - ANSWER>c. 11750 The client is seen for removal of fatty tissue of the posterior iliac crest, abdomen, and the medial and lateral thighs. Suction-assisted lipectomy was undertaken in the left posterior iliac crest area and was continued on the right and the lateral trochanteric and posterior aspect of the medial thighs. The medial right and left thighs were suctioned followed by the abdomen. The total amount infused was 2300 cc and the total amount a. 15877, 15878 - 50 - 51 b. 15877, 15879 - 50 - 51 c. 15830, 15839 - 50 - 51, 15847 d. 15830, 15832 - 50 - 51 - ANSWER>b. 15877, 15879 - 50 - 51 The client is seen in follow-up for excision of the basal cell carcinoma of his nose. I examined his nose noting the wound has healed well. His pathology showed the margins were clear. He has a mass on his forehead; he says it is from a fragment of sheet metal from an injury to his forehead. He has an X-ray showing a foreign body, and we have offered to remove it. After obtaining consent we proceeded. The area was In ICD- 10 - CM, what classification system is used to report open fracture classifications? a. Gustilo classification for open fractures
splint. What CPT® code is reported? with suture and staples on the skin. Sterile dressing was applied followed by a posterior Final radiographs showed restoration of the fibula. The wound was irrigated and closed applied to the lateral contours of the fibula with cortical and cancellous bone screws. from anterior to posterior across the fracture. A 5 - hole 1/3 tubular plate was then c. Danis-Weber classification d. Muller AO classification of fractures - ANSWER>a. Gustilo classification for open fractures A client presented with a right ankle fracture. After induction of general anesthesia, the right leg was elevated and draped in the usual manner for surgery. A longitudinal incision was made parallel and posterior to the fibula. It was curved anteriorly to its distal end. The skin flap was developed and retracted anteriorly. The distal fibula fracture was then reduced and held with reduction forceps. A lag screw was inserted a. 27823- RT b. 27792- RT c. 27814 - RT d. 27787 - RT - ANSWER>b. 27792 - RT A 49-year-old female presented with chronic deQuervain's disease and has been unresponsive to physical therapy, bracing or cortisone injection. She has opted for more definitive treatment. After induction of anesthesia, the client's left arm was prepared and draped in the normal sterile fashion. Local anesthetic was injected using a combination 2% lidocaine and 0.25% Marcaine. A transverse incision was made over the central area of the first dorsal compartment. The subcutaneous tissues were gently spread to protect the neural and venous structures. The retractors were placed. The fascial sheath of the first dorsal compartment was then incised and opened carefully. The underlying thumb abductor and extensor tendons were identified. The tissues were dissected and the extensor retinaculum of the first extensor compartment was incised. The fibrotic tissue was incised and the tendons gently released. The tendons were fre - ANSWER>d. 25000 - LT Feedback: The report states the extensor retinaculum of the first extensor compartment was incised. Look in CPT index for Incision/Wrist/Tendon Sheath 25000-25001. Code 25000 shows deQuervain's disease in the description. Modifier LT is appended to inciate procedure is performed on the left side. b. PHF classification of fractures
cauterization. What CPT® codes are reported? the anterior third of the bony turbinate and lateral mucosa followed by bipolar look for Pleurodesis/Instillation of Agent. Code 32560 is appropriate for the described Feedback:Chemopleurodesis is represented by codes 32560 - 32562. In the CPT® Index Response Feedback: A client with chronic pneumothoraces presents for chemopleurodesis. Under local anesthesia a small incision is made between the ribs. A catheter is inserted into the pleural space between the parietal and pleural viscera. Subsequently, 5g of sterile asbestos free talc was introduced into the pleural space via the catheter. What CPT® and ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. 32560, J93. b. 32650, 32560, J93. c. 32650, J95. d. 32601, 32560, J95.811 - ANSWER>a. 32560, J93. actions taken to instill the talc used to treat recurrent pneumothorax. Look in the ICD- 10 - CM Alphabetic Index for Pneumothorax NOS/chronic which directs you to code J93.81. Verification in the Tabular List confirms code selection. A 25-year-old male presents with a deviated nasal septum. The client undergoes a nasal septum repair and submucous resection. Cartilage from the bony septum was detached and the nasoseptum was realigned and removed in a piecemeal fashion. Thereafter, 4-0 chronic was used to approximate mucous membranes. Next, submucous resection of the turbinates was handled in the usual fashion by removing a. 30450, 30999 - 51 b. 30520, 30140 - 51 c. 30420, 30140 - 51 d. 30620, 30999 - 51 - ANSWER>b. 30520, 30140 - 51 Which main coronary artery bifurcates into two smaller ones? a. Left b. Right c. Inverted d. Superficial - ANSWER>a. Left In the cath lab a physician places a catheter in the aortic arch from a right femoral artery puncture to perform an angiography. Fluoroscopic imaging is performed by the physician. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
catheterization and fluoroscopic imaging which is code 36221 CPT Index for Angiography/Cervicocerebral Arch. Only one code is reported for the The aorta separat C) Hypertension and heart disease without a stated causal relationship must be coded Feedback: Code 93970 reports a complete bilateral noninvasive physiologic study of extremity veins. This study is found in the CPT® Index by looking for Vascular Studies/Venous Studies/Extremity which directs you to 93970 - 93971. Modifier 50 is not a. 36222 b. 36200, 75605 - 26 c. 36215, 75605 - 26 d. 36221 - ANSWER>d. 36211 Feedback: is the trunk of the system, so this is a non-selective catheterization. Look in ely. D) Hypertension with heart disease is always coded to heart failure. - ANSWER>B) Hypertension and heart disease have an assumed causal relationship. Feedback: ICD- 10 - CM Coding Guidelines I.C.9.a states a causal relationship is presumed between hypertension and heart involvement. Only if the documentation specifically states they are unrelated, are they to be coded separately. ICD- 10 - CM guideline I.C.9.a.1 indicates two codes are required to report hypertension and heart failure. appended because the term bilateral is included in the code description for 93970. When reporting an encounter for screening of malignant neoplasms of the intestinal tract, what does the 5th character indicate? A) History of malignancy in the intestinal tract B) Laterality of the intestinal tract C) Anatomic location being screened in the intestinal tract Which statement is TRUE regarding codes for hypertension and heart disease in ICD10-CM? A) Only one code is required to report hypertension and heart failure. B) Hypertension and heart disease have an assumed causal relationship. ANSWER>> studies of both lower extremities were performed. Which CPT® code is reported? - A patient presents for extremity venous study. Complete noninvasive physiologic
of a postoperative bladder neck contracture. integral part of the prostate resection. CPT 52640 is used for the transurethral resectio Procedure/Prostate/Resection. CPT 52500 is a separate pro directed to 53444 - 53445. Codes 53446 - 53448 are for the removal or Feedback: In the CPT® Index look for Insertion/Prosthesis/Urethral Sphincter. You're d. 52640 - ANSWER>b. 52630 Feedback: CPT 52630 is reported for a transurethral resection of residual or regrowth of the prostatic tissue. In the the CPT index look for Transurethral cedure and considered an n removal/replacement of the inflatable sphincter. CPT® 53445 describes the insertion of an inflatable urethra/bladder neck sphincter, including placement of pump, reservoir and cuff. The client has significant morbid obesity and her pannus has been retracted to help with dissection. The planned procedure is to place a catheter/tube to drain the bladder. It is apparent she has quite a bit of scarring from her previous surgeries and appears to have an old sinus tract just above the symphysis. A midline incision is made following her old scar from just above the symphysis for a length of about 4-6cm. The sinus tract was excised, as this was also in the midline, and carefully dissected down to the level of the fascia. It does not appear to be an actual hernia, as there are no ventral contents within it. Again, there is quite a bit of distortion from previous scarring because of the obesity, but staying in the midline, the fascia is incised just above the symphysis of a length of about 2cm. The fat and scar are incised above the fascia more superiorly and with palpation, mesh from a previous hernia r - ANSWER>a. 51040- 53 What does the abbreviation VBAC mean? - ANSWER>Vaginal Birth After Cesarean A client is seen for three extra visits during the third trimester of her 30-week pregnancy because of her history of pre-eclampsia during her previous pregnancy which puts her at risk for a recurrence of the problem during this pregnancy. No problems develop. What diagnosis code(s) is/are reported for these three extra visits? A 63-year-old male presents for the insertion of an artificial inflatable urinary sphincter for urinary incontinence. A 4.5 cm cuff, 22 ml balloon, 61-70 mmHg artificial inflatable urinary sphincter was inserted. What CPT® code is reported for this service? - ANSWER>> d. Z34.83, O09.893, Z3A.30 - ANSWER>>a. O09.893, Z3A. c. Z34. b. O14.03, Z3A. a. O09.893, Z3A.
codes are reported by the ED physician? physician. She will return home for her postpartum care. What ICD- 10 - CM and CPT® perineal laceration secondary to precipitous delivery which was repaired by the ED b. Induced a. Missed A pregnant client presents to the ED with bleeding, cramping, and concerns of loss of tissue and material per vagina. On examination, the physician discovers an open cervical os with no products of conception seen. He tells the client she has had an abortion. What type of abortion has she had? c. Spontaneous d. None of the above - ANSWER>c. Spontaneous Mrs. Smith is visiting her mother and is 150 miles away from home. She is in the 26th week of pregnancy. In the late afternoon she suddenly feels a gush of fluids followed by strong uterine contractions. She is rushed to the hospital but the baby is born before they arrive. In the ED she and the baby are examined and the retained placenta is delivered. The baby is in the neonatal nursery doing okay. Mrs. Smith has a 2nd degree Migraines are reported from what category in ICD- 10 - CM? a) F b) G c) G d) G43 - ANSWER>d) G A client with a status post (after or following) lumbar puncture headache receives an epidural blood patch. The client's venous blood is injected into the lumbar epidural space; this blood forms a clot sealing the leak of CSF from the lumbar puncture. What CPT® and ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a. 62273, G97. b. 62281, G44. c. 62282, G97. d. 62273, G44.1 - ANSWER>a. 62273, G97. a. 59409, O80, Z3A.26, Z37. b. 59409, 59414 - 51, 59300 - 51, O62.3, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37. c. 59414, 59300 - 51, O62.3, O70.9, Z3A.26, Z37. d. 59414, 59300-51, O73.0, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37.0 - ANSWER>>d. 59414, 59300-51, O73.0, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37.
ANSWER>>69631-LT
c. General, regional, and moderate sedation d. General, MAC, and conscious sedation - ANSWER>>b. General, regional, and monitored anesthesia care b. General, regional, and monitored anesthesia care General, regional, and epidural What are the three classifications of anesthesia? b. 69140 - RT c. 69145 - LT d. 69100 - RT - ANSWER>a. 69105 - LT A 26 - year-old female with a one-year history of a left tympanic membrane perforation. She has extensive tympanosclerosis with a nonhealing perforation. Her options, including observation with water precautions or surgery, were discussed. The client wished to proceed with surgery. With use of the operating microscope, the surgeon performs a left lateral graft tympanoplasty. What CPT® code is reported? - Feedback: During the procedure, a tympanoplasty is performed. There is no mention of a mastoidectomy or ossicular chain reconstruction being performed. From the CPT® Index look for Tympanoplasty/without Mastoidectomy then verify the code in the numeric section. Modifier LT is used to indicate the procedure was performed on the left ear. a. What is the ICD- 10 - CM coding for personal history of colonic polyps? a. Z83. b. K51. c. K63. d. Z86.010 - ANSWER>d. Z86. A client undergoes heart surgery for angina decubitus and coronary artery disease (CAD). What ICD- 10 - CM coding is reported? a. I25. b. I25. c. I20. d. I25.119 - ANSWER>a. I25. A client presents to the OR for a craniotomy with evacuation of a hematoma. What CPT® coding is reported for the anesthesiologist's services?
ANSWER>>77762- 26
cervical cavity (intracavitary). What CPT® code is reported for the physician service? - inserted with iridium via the vagina to release its radiation dose. The placement is in th brachytherapy. The cervix is dilated and under ultrasound guidance six applicato CPT® subsection guidelines under the heading Clinical Brachytherapy, definitions are Brachytherapy/Intracavitary Application directing you to 0395T, 77761 - 77763. The a. 00210 b. 61312 c. 61314 d. 00211 - ANSWER>d. 00211 An anesthesiologist is medically supervising six cases concurrently. What modifier is reported for the anesthesiologist's service? a. QX b. QK c. AA d. AD - ANSWER>d. AD A client arrives at the urgent care facility with a swollen ankle. Anteroposterior and lateral view X-rays of the ankle are taken to determine whether the client has a fractured ankle. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported? a. 73600 X 2 b. 73610 c. 73600, 73610 d. 73600 - ANSWER>d. 73600 A 32 - year-old client with cervical cancer is in an outclient facility to have HDR rs are e given to differentiate simple, intermediate and complex brachytherapy. Code 77762 is reported for the intracavitary application of five to 10 sources (intermediate); six applicators were used for this procedure making 77762 the correct code. A client who may have a stricture of the artery is undergoing an aortogram in which the left femoral artery was cannulated with a catheter advanced into the infrarenal abdominal aorta. Contrast medium was injected, and films taken by serialography showing the aortoiliac inflow vessels were widely patent. The bilateral common femoral Response Feedback: Feedback: Patient is receiving a type of internal radiation therapy delivering a high dose of radiation (HDR) from implants (applicators with the iridium) placed via the vaginal cavity (intracavitary). This is found in the CPT® Index by looking for
code is reported? had a vision exam. No abnormal historical facts or finding are noted. refills. Blood work was ordered. PPD was done and flu vaccine given. Patient already meds. A comprehensive history and examination is performed. The provider counsels the patient on the importance of taking his medication and gives him a prescription for is reported? allergy testing. Dr. Smith also includes his findings from the encounter. What E/M code tested to possibly gain better control of his allergies. Dr. Smith sends a report to Dr. Long thanking him for the referral and includes the date the patient is scheduled for c. C78.01, C78.02, C80. d. C34.90, C80.1 - ANSWER>c. C78.01, C78.02, C80. Flow cytometry is performed for DNA analysis. What CPT® code is reported? a. 88184 b. 88182 c. 88187 d. 88189 - ANSWER>b. 88182 According to CPT® guidelines, what is the first step in selecting an evaluation and management code for an E/M service provided in a hospital? a. Determine if time is the determining component b. Determine the level of history c. Review the code descriptors and examples for the category or subcategory selected. d. Determine the level of medical decision making - ANSWER>c. Review the code descriptors and examples for the category or subcategory selected. A 32 - year-old client sees Dr. Smith for a consult at the request of his PCP, Dr. Long,for an ongoing problem with allergies. The client has failed Claritin and Alavert and feels his symptoms continue to worsen. Dr. Smith performs an expanded problem focused history and exam and discusses options with the client on allergy management. The MDM is straightforward. The client agrees he would like to be a. 99203 b. 99242 c. 99243 d. 99214 - ANSWER>b. 99242 A 75-year-old established client sees his regular primary care provider for a physical screening prior to joining a group home. He has no new complaints. The client has an established diagnosis of cerebral palsy and type 2 diabetes and is currently on his What CPT®
encounter? a. 99387 b. 99214 c. 99215 d. 99397 - ANSWER>d. 99397 A 28-year-old female client is returning to her provider's office with complaints of RLQ pain and heartburn with a temperature of 100.2. The provider performs a medically appropriate history and exam. Abdominal ultrasound is ordered and the client has mild appendicitis. The provider prescribes antibiotics to treat the appendicitis in hopes of avoiding an appendectomy. What are the correct CPT® and ICD- 10 - CM codes for this a. 99213, K37, R b. 99202, R10.31, K c. 99203, K d. 99203, R50.9, R12, R10.31, K37 - ANSWER>a. 99213, K37, R A child with suspected sleep apnea was given an apnea monitoring device to use over the next month. The device was capable of recording and storing data relative to heart and respiratory rate and pattern. The pediatric pulmonologist reviewed the data and reported to the child's primary pediatrician. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for the monitor attachment, download of data, provider review, interpretation and report? a. 94775, 94776, 94777 b. 95800 c. 95806 d. 94774 - ANSWER>d. 94774 A 5 week old infant shows signs of fatigue after eating and has poor weight gain. He is suspected to have a congenital heart defect. The neonatologist ordered a transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE). TTE is showing a shunt between the right and left ventricles. The neonatologist read and interpreted the study and indicated the client has a ventricular septal defect (VSD). What are the CPT® and ICD- 10 - CM codes for the TTE read? a. 93303 - 26, Q21. b. 93312 - 26, Q21. c. 93312, I51. d. 93303, I51.0 - ANSWER>a. 93303 - 26, Q21. A teenager has been chronically depressed since the separation of her parents 1 year ago and moving to a new city. Her school grades continued to slip and she has not
