Download AAPC CPC FINAL EXAM ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) 2024/2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
Which statement is TRUE regarding coding COPD with asthma in ICD- 10 - CM? - CORRECT ANSWER The type of asthma is reported along with the COPD. A patient is seen in the endoscopy suite for a diagnostic maxillary sinusotomy. During the sinusotomy, the provider observes some diseased tissue which needs to be removed. The provider decides to perform a maxillary antrostomy with tissue removal. Bleeding is controlled. The patient tolerated the procedure well. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported? - CORRECT ANSWER 31267 An ICU diabetic patient who has been in a coma for weeks as the result of a head injury becomes conscious and begins to improve. The physician performs a tracheostomy closure and since the scar tissue is minimal, the plastic surgeon is not needed. What CPT® and ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported for this procedure? 31820, Z43.0, S06.9X9D, E11.9:Rationale: In the CPT® Index look for Tracheostomy/Surgical Closure/without Plastic Repair. This directs you to code 31820.In the ICD- 10 - CM Alphabetic Index look for Attention (to)/tracheostomy which directs you to Z43.0. It is reported as a primary code because the closure of the tracheostomy is the reason for the procedure performed. Diabetic coma (E11.641) is not reported because the coma resulted from a
AAPC CPC FINAL EXAM ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) 2024/
head injury not diabetes. Coma would not be reported because it is resolved and the patient no longer has it. In the Alphabetic Index look for Injury/head directing you to S09. - CORRECT ANSWER A surgeon performs a high thoracotomy with resection of a single lung segment on a 57-year-old who is currently a heavy smoker who had presented with a six-month history of right shoulder pain that radiates to the chest. An apical lung biopsy had confirmed lung cancer. What CPT® and ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? 32484, C34.10, F17.210:Rationale: A segment of the lung is removed. In the CPT® Index look for Removal/Lung/Single Segment. This directs you to code 32484.We have a confirmed diagnosis of apical lung cancer, a cancer in an upper lobe, which is code C34.10 (no indication of right or left lung). The term apical means the tip of a pyramidal or rounded structure, so apical lung cancer means the tumor/cancer is located at the top or upper lobe of the lung. We find this by looking in the Table of Neoplasms for Neoplasm, neoplastic/lung/upper lobe and select from the Primary Malignant column which directs you to c - CORRECT ANSWER Patient presents to her physician 10 weeks following a true posterior wall myocardial infarction. The patient is still symptomatic and is diagnosed with ischemic heart disease. What is (are) the correct ICD- 10 - CM code(s) for this condition? - CORRECT ANSWER Patient presents to her physician 10 weeks following a true posterior wall myocardial infarction. The patient is still symptomatic and is diagnosed with ischemic heart disease. What is (are) the correct ICD- 10 - CM code(s) for this condition? Z51.89, I25.9Rationale: Because it is past four weeks since the myocardial infarction and the patient is still symptomatic, ICD- 10 - CM guideline, I.C.9.e.1, indicates that the appropriate aftercare code is assigned rather than a code from category I21. Look in
atrioventricular annulus while on cardiopulmonary bypass. - CORRECT ANSWER What is the eponym for a pancreatoduodenectomy? - CORRECT ANSWER Meckel's Procedure What is the CPT® code for a test used to diagnose lactase intolerance? It involves the patient ingesting lactose sample followed by collections of exhaled air at different time intervals to measure the hydrogen levels in the breath. - CORRECT ANSWER 91065 What is the correct ICD- 10 - CM code for a patient with IBS? - CORRECT ANSWER K58. A patient suffering from cirrhosis of the liver from alcohol abuse presents with a history of coffee ground emesis (bleeding). The surgeon diagnoses the patient with esophageal gastric varices. Two days later, in the hospital GI lab, the surgeon ligates the varices with bands via an UGI endoscopy. What CPT® and ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? - CORRECT ANSWER 43244, K70.30, I85.11, F10. What information does ICD- 10 - CM add to many of the codes for eye disorders or injuries? - CORRECT ANSWER Evaluation and management services are often provided in a standard format such as SOAP notes. What does the acronym SOAP stand for? a. Scope, Observation, Action, Plan b. Standard, Objective, Activity, Period c. Source, Opinion, Advice, Provider
d. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan - CORRECT ANSWER Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan What will the scope of a compliance program depend on? a. The number of insurance carriers the provider is contracted with. b. The size and resources of the provider's practice. c. The specific guidelines set forth in the OIG compliance plan. d. How many patients are seen in the office on a daily basis. - CORRECT ANSWER The size and resources of the provider's practice. The Medicare program is made up of several parts. Which part covers provider fees without the use of a private insurer? a.Part Db.Part Bc.Part Cd.Part A - CORRECT ANSWER Part b Which of the following is true about the tympanic membrane? a.It separates the middle ear from the inner earb.It sits within the inner earc.It sits within the middle eard.It separates the external ear from the middle ear - CORRECT ANSWER It separates the middle ear from the inner ear What is affected by myasthenia gravis? a.Muscle bellyb.Bonec.Neuromuscular junctiond.Muscle/bone connection - CORRECT ANSWER Neuromuscular junction Which of the following is true of the stratum germinativum? a.It is the surface layer of the epidermis.b.It is composed of dense fibrous connective tissue.c.It lies on top of the dermis and has access to a rich supply of blood.d.It is composed of about 30 layers of dead, flattened, keratinized cells. - CORRECT ANSWER It lies on top of the dermis and has access to a rich supply of blood.
Use the code(s) in brackets first. - CORRECT ANSWER Use the code(s) in brackets in addition to the disease or condition to identity an associated manifestation. What ICD- 10 - CM code(s) is/are reported for enlargement of the prostate with a symptom of urinary retention? a.N40.1b.N40.1, R33.8c.N40.3, R33.8d.N40.0 - CORRECT ANSWER N40. A patient was seen in the provider's office and was diagnosed with influenza with pneumonia. The provider selected J18.9. Refer to the Tabular List to verify code J18.9. Is it correct to report code J18.9? Why? a. Yes, code J18.9 is a combination code assigned to influenza with pneumonia. b. No, the influenza code, J11.1 also needs to be reported on the claim. c. Yes, because the provider selected J18.9, it must be reported. d. No, there is a combination code J11.00 includes influenza with pneumonia. - CORRECT ANSWER No, there is a combination code J11.00 includes influenza with pneumonia. a. Eight weeks b. One week c. Four weeks (28 days) d. Only at the time of occurrence - CORRECT ANSWER c
What ICD- 10 - CM code is used for the first episode of an acute myocardial infarction? a. I21. b. I c. I25. d. I22 - CORRECT ANSWER b A 70 year-old patient with decompensated COPD is admitted to the hospital with acute exacerbation of bronchial asthma. What diagnosis(es) code(s) is (are) reported? a. J44.1, J45. b. J44. c. J44. d. J45.9 - CORRECT ANSWER a An elderly male patient presents to the ED complaining of a high fever the day prior to the encounter and of extreme lethargy. He has a history of benign hypertension which has been elevated. On arrival he was examined by his primary care physician and admitted, with possible septic urinary tract infection and concern for his elevated blood pressure. He was noted to have hematuria and a urine culture performed. Positive UTI and pseudomonas showed in the urine culture and IV antibiotics were administered. During the course of the day, his fever decreased and his lethargy improved. As the IV fluids were decreased, he resumed a benign hypertensive state. On the next hospital day, his primary care physician noted the urine was clear and he was discharged on
A pregnant woman in her 40 th week has gestational diabetes which is controlled by diet. What ICD- 10 - CM code(s) is/are reported? a. O24.113, O24.410, Z3A. b. O24.410, O24. c. O24.410, Z3A. d. O24.913 - CORRECT ANSWER c A 45 year-old mother of three children is going into surgery to correct an anterior vaginal wall prolapse with an incomplete uterine prolapse. What ICD- 10 - CM code is reported? a.N81.4b.N81.3c.N81.2d.N81.10 - CORRECT ANSWER c A patient is prescribed anticonvulsant medication for her seizures. She returns to her doctor three days later with nausea and rash due to taking the anticonvulsant medication. The provider notes that this is a drug reaction to an anticonvulsant and changes the medication. What ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a.L27.0, R11.0, T42.75XAb.L27.0, R11.2, T42.71XAc.R21, R11.2, T42.71XAd.R21, R11.0, T42.75XA - CORRECT ANSWER a A patient had a spontaneous complete abortion three days ago. She returns to the ED and is bleeding. After the ED provider examines her, she still has retained products of conception (POC). What ICD- 10 - CM code is reported for this encounter? a.O03.6b.O03.1c.O02.1d.O04.6 - CORRECT ANSWER b What codes are voluntarily reported to payers, provide evidence- based performance-measure data?
a.CPT® Category II codesb.CPT® Category III codesc.HCPCS Level II codesd.CPT® Category I codes - CORRECT ANSWER a What is the correct CPT® code to report a microscopic urinalysis? a.81015b.81003c.81000d.81001 - CORRECT ANSWER c What surgical status indicator represents the Global Surgical Package for endoscopic procedures (without an incision) where there is no postoperative period after the day of the surgery?? - CORRECT ANSWER 000 HCPCS Level II includes code ranges that consist of what type of codes? a.Permanent national codes, miscellaneous codes and temporary national codesb.Dental codes, morphology codes, miscellaneous codes and permanent national codesc.Permanent national codes, dental codes and category II codesd.Category II codes, temporary national codes and miscellaneous codes - CORRECT ANSWER a What is the correct HCPCS Level II code for parenteral nutrition solution amino acid, 3.5%? - CORRECT ANSWER B What is the correct diagnosis code to report initial treatment of an infected post procedural stitch abscess of the right leg from a previous excision of a squamous cell carcinoma? a. T81.9XXA b. C44. c. T81.31XA d. T81.41XA - CORRECT ANSWER d maybe
cystic material. There was no obvious purulence. We are going to have her clean this with a Q-tip. We will let it heal on its own and eventually excise it. I will have her come back a week from Tuesday to reschedule surgery. What CPT® and ICD- 10 - CM codes are reported? a.10061, L72.9b.10140, L70.1c.10160, R22.2d.10060, L72.9 - CORRECT ANSWER d The acronym BKA means? - CORRECT ANSWER below knee amputation A young female patient was taken to the operative suite and was placed under appropriate anesthesia. She has been suffering from pain and a potential rotator cuff tear of the right shoulder. The right arm was sterilely draped and prepped. Arthroscopic portals were created anteriorly-posteriorly. The joint line was carefully examined. The biceps insertion was noted to be normal. The middle and inferior glenohumeral ligaments were visualized and noted to be normal. The undersurface of the rotator cuff was clearly visualized and also noted to be normal. There was a large anterior spur formation. The burr was introduced through a lateral portal and the anterior lip of the acromion was resected. The undersurface of the clavicle was noted to be quite prominent and part of the impinging process. There was intense bursitis and a bursectomy was performed, allowing for acromial decompression and release. Spurs were removed fro - CORRECT ANSWER 29822 - RT, 29826-RT A 66 year-old sustained a left proximal humerus fracture. Standard deltopectoral approach was used and dissection was carried down to the fracture site. The fracture site was identified and fragments were mobilized and the humeral head fragments removed. Once this was done, the stem was prepared up to a size 10. A trial reduction was carried out with the DePuy trial stem and implant head. Sutures were placed in key positions for
closure of the tuberosities down to the shaft including sutures through the shaft. The shaft was then prepared and cement was injected into the shaft. The implant was placed. Once the cement was hardened, the head was placed on Morse taper and reduced. A bone graft was placed around the area where the tuberosities were being brought down. The tuberosities were then tied down with a suture previously positioned. This gave excellent closure and coverage of the significant motion at the repair s - CORRECT ANSWER 23616 - LT A 22 year-old female sustained a dislocation of the right elbow with a medial epicondyle fracture while on vacation. The patient was given general anesthesia and the elbow was reduced and was stable. The medial epicondyle was held in the appropriate position and was reduced in acceptable position and elevated. A long arm splint was applied. The patient is referred to an orthopedist when she returns to her home state in a few days. What CPT® code(s) are reported? 24565 - 54 - RT, 24605 - 54 - 51 - RTRationale: In the CPT® Index look for Fracture/Humerus/Epicondyle/Closed Treatment. You are referred to code 24560-24565. Review the codes to choose the appropriate service. 24565 is the correct code to report the alignment of an epicondyle fracture with manipulation (reduced) without a surgical incision. In the CPT® Index, look for Dislocation/Elbow/Closed Treatment. You are referred to 24600,
- Review the codes to choose a - CORRECT ANSWER The patient is a 17 year-old male who was struck on the elbow by another player's stick while playing hockey. He is found to have a fracture of the olecranon process. The patient was brought to the OR, anesthetized and intubated. The right upper extremity was prepped with Betadine scrub and draped free in the usual sterile orthopedic manner. The arm was then elevated and exsanguinated and the tourniquet inflated to 250 mm/Hg. A five- inch incision was made with the scalpel on the extensor side of
