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2024 ATI Med Surg NGN Exam New Latest Version with
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Question 1: A client calls the clinic and tells the nurse that he was bitten by a tick and is afraid he has Lyme disease. How long does the nurse understand that the tick must be attached to Lyme disease? A. 36 to 48 hours. B. 24 to 36 hours. C. 12 to 24 hours. D. 1 to 2 hours. Show correct answer and explanation Explanation 36 to 48 hours. Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. The tick must be attached to the skin for at least 36 to 48 hours for the bacterium to be transmitted. The nurse should advise the client to seek medical attention promptly. Choice B is incorrect because the tick must be attached for a longer duration of time for the bacterium to be transmitted. Choice C is incorrect because the tick must be attached for a longer duration of time for the bacterium to be transmitted. Choice D is incorrect because the tick must be attached for a longer duration of time for the bacterium to be transmitted.
Question 2: Which of the following interventions would be appropriate for a client who has undergone surgery for a disorder and has started shivering? A. Place the client on a hypothermia blanket. B. Provide the client with warm fluids. C. Cover the client with a light blanket. D. Ensure that the room temperature is below 70°F. Show correct answer and explanation Explanation Provide the client with warm fluids. Shivering is the body's natural response to try to warm itself up. Providing warm fluids to the client can help to increase the client's core temperature and decrease shivering. Choice A is incorrect because a hypothermia blanket is used to reduce the client's core temperature, which is not appropriate for a client who is shivering. Choice C is incorrect because a light blanket may not provide enough warmth for the client who is shivering.
C. Decorticate. D. Flaccidity. Show correct answer and explanation Explanation Decorticate posturing is characterized by flexion of the arms, wrists, and fingers, extension, internal rotation, and adduction of the legs, with plantar flexion of the feet. This is caused by damage to the cerebral cortex and is indicative of a neurological problem. Choice A is incorrect because stuporous is a state of reduced consciousness, and does not describe the posturing observed in the client. Choice B is incorrect because decerebrate posturing is characterized by extension of the arms, wrists, and fingers, and extension and internal rotation of the legs, with plantar flexion of the feet. Choice D is incorrect because flaccidity is a state of complete lack of muscle tone, and does not describe the posturing observed in the client.
Question 5: A client is taking large amounts of salicylates for the treatment of bursitis of the left shoulder. The client should be aware to report which symptoms of salicylate toxicity (salicylism)? A. Diarrhea. B. Ringing in the ears. C. Dry eyes. D. Dry hacking cough. Show correct answer and explanation Explanation Ringing in the ears. Salicylate toxicity or salicylism is a condition that occurs when a client is taking large amounts of salicylates, which can result in symptoms such as tinnitus or ringing in the ears, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Clients should report these symptoms to their healthcare provider immediately to prevent further complications. Choice A, diarrhea, is not a symptom of salicylate toxicity, but rather a potential side effect of the medication in normal doses.
D. Infection. Show correct answer and explanation Explanation Hypovolemia. Following a serious thermal burn, the nurse takes action to prevent hypovolemia, which can result from fluid loss due to the burn. Hypovolemia can lead to hypoperfusion of vital organs, including the kidneys, and can cause acute renal failure. Preventing hypovolemia is critical to preventing other complications such as tissue hypoxia, cardiac failure, and infection. A. Tissue hypoxia and cardiac failure are consequences of hypovolemia due to decreased blood flow to organs. D. Infection is not the immediate complication to prevent but is a potential complication following burn injury. Question 8: The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who had surgery to decrease intracranial pressure after suffering a head injury. Which assessment finding is promptly reported to the physician? A. The client's vital signs are temperature, 101.9 F; heart rate, 88 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 18 breaths/minute, and blood pressure, 138/80 mm Hg. B. The client has periorbital edema and ecchymosis. C. The client prefers to rest in the semi-Fowler's position. D. The client's level of consciousness has improved. Show correct answer and explanation Explanation The client's vital signs are temperature, 101.9 F; heart rate, 88 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 18 breaths/minute, and blood pressure, 138/80 mm Hg. An elevated temperature is a significant finding that may indicate the presence of an infection, which can cause further neurological damage in a client with an intracranial injury. The physician should be notified promptly, as the client may require antibiotic therapy to prevent the spread of infection. B. Periorbital edema and ecchymosis are normal findings following head injury and should be monitored but do not require immediate intervention.
C. Resting in semi-Fowler's position is an appropriate position to maintain after intracranial pressure-reducing surgery. D. Improved level of consciousness is a positive finding and indicates that the client is responding well to treatment. Question 9: The nursing student is taking an anatomy and physiology class. What anatomical structure equalizes air pressure in the middle ear? A. Eustachian tube.B. The malleus. C. The pinna. D. The meatus. Show correct answer and explanation Explanation Eustachian tube. The Eustachian tube is a narrow tube that connects the middle ear to the back of the nose and equalizes air pressure in the middle ear. B. The malleus is a bone in the middle ear that transmits sound vibrations. C. The pinna is the visible part of the ear that collects and directs sound waves. D. The meatus is a passage or opening leading to the ear or nose. Discussion Section Write a comment
A client comes to the emergency department complaining of localized pain and swelling of his lower leg. Ecchymotic areas are noted. History reveals that the client got bit in the leg with a baseball bat. Which of the following would the nurse suspect as most likely? A. Strain. B. Sprain. C. Contusion.D. Fracture. Show correct answer and explanation Explanation Contusion. The nurse would suspect a contusion as the client was hit by a baseball bat and has localized pain and swelling with ecchymosis (bruising). Option A, Strain, is unlikely as a strain is a stretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon, and it is not usually caused by blunt force trauma. Option B, Sprain, is unlikely as a sprain is a stretching or tearing of a ligament, and it is not usually caused by blunt force trauma.
Option D, Fracture, is unlikely as a fracture is a break in the bone and usually involves more severe pain and may be accompanied by deformity. Discussion Section Write a comment
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Post Comment 0 Pulse Checks No comments Question 12: A client, who is recovering from bariatric surgery, is returning from the post- anesthesia care unit. Which nursing assessment is of greatest concern in the immediate postoperative period for this client? A. Impaired Mobility. B. Impaired Gas Exchange.C. Self-Care Deficit. D. Diarrhea. Show correct answer and explanation Explanation Impaired Gas Exchange. Impaired gas exchange is the greatest concern in the immediate postoperative period for a client recovering from bariatric surgery, as the client may have difficulty breathing due to anesthesia, pain medication, or obesity-related respiratory problems. Option A, Impaired Mobility, is a concern but not the greatest concern in the immediate postoperative period. Option C, Self-Care Deficit, may be an issue but is not the greatest concern in the immediate postoperative period. Option D, Diarrhea, may occur after bariatric surgery but is not the greatest concern in the immediate postoperative period. Discussion Section Write a comment
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Choice A, Hyperemia is an increase in blood flow to an area, causing redness and warmth. Choice B, Coagulation is the process of blood clotting. Choice C, Stasis is a reduction in blood flow to an area, causing blood to pool and resulting in tissue hypoxia. Discussion Section Write a comment
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Post Comment 0 Pulse Checks No comments Question 15: A client has a decreased secretion of erythropoietin from the kidneys due to end-stage kidney disease. What outcome will the decrease in erythropoietin have? A. Increase in blood sugar levels due to alteration in insulin levels. B. Anemia from the decrease in the maturation of red blood cells.C. Decrease in blood sugar
levels due to alteration in insulin levels. D. Development of male sex characteristics. Show correct answer and explanation Explanation Anemia from the decrease in the maturation of red blood cells. Erythropoietin, a hormone secreted by the kidneys, stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. A decrease in erythropoietin secretion from the kidneys will result in a decrease in the maturation of red blood cells, leading to anemia. Choice A, an increase in blood sugar levels due to alteration in insulin levels, and Choice C, Decrease in blood sugar levels due to alteration in insulin levels are not associated with decreased secretion of erythropoietin. Choice D, Development of male sex characteristics is not related to the function of erythropoietin. Discussion Section Write a comment
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Post Comment 0 Pulse Checks No comments Question 16: Which of the following is a true statement regarding psoriasis? A. It is a chronic, infectious inflammatory disease. B. It is characterized by patches of redness covered with silvery scales.C. A cure is possible with prompt treatment. D. The onset typically occurs in young children Show correct answer and explanation Explanation It is characterized by patches of redness covered with silvery scales. Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that causes patches of red, inflamed skin covered with silvery scales.
the sound is no longer heard, place the tuning fork beside the ear.C. Strike the tuning fork and place it in the center of the skull. D. Stand three feet away and have the client repeat back what you have whispered. Show correct answer and explanation Explanation In the Rinne test, the nurse first places a tuning fork on the mastoid process behind the ear, and when the client states that the sound is no longer heard, the tuning fork is placed beside the ear. This test is done to compare bone conduction with air conduction. When sound is no longer heard via bone conduction, the sound will still be heard via air conduction. Choice A is incorrect because it describes the Weber test, not the Rinne test. Choice C is incorrect because it is not a standard hearing test. Choice D is incorrect because it describes the Whisper test, which is also used to test for hearing loss. Discussion Section Write a comment
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Post Comment 0 Pulse Checks No comments Question 18: The nurse is caring for a young woman who is struggling with weight loss issues without apparent physical cause. Which is the most likely nursing assessment for this nutritional disorder in which normal body weight is not maintained? A. Kwashiorkor. B. Anorexia nervosa.C. Crohn's disease. D. Bulimia nervosa. Show correct answer and explanation Explanation Anorexia nervosa is a nutritional disorder characterized by a distorted body image and fear of weight gain, leading to an abnormally low body weight. Clients with anorexia nervosa may also engage in binge eating and purging behaviors.
Choice A is incorrect because Kwashiorkor is a type of protein-energy malnutrition caused by a severe protein deficiency. Choice C is incorrect because Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease. Choice D is incorrect because Bulimia nervosa is a nutritional disorder characterized by binge eating and purging behaviors. Discussion Section Write a comment
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Post Comment 0 Pulse Checks No comments Question 19: The nurse is caring for a client experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. Which of the following does the nurse recognize as the source of symptoms? A. Autonomic nervous system.B. Central nervous system. C. Sympathetic nervous system. D. Peripheral nervous system. Show correct answer and explanation Explanation Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure, sweating, and headache. It is caused by an overactivity of the autonomic nervous system in response to a noxious stimulus below the level of a spinal cord injury. Choice B is incorrect because the central nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord, while autonomic dysreflexia is caused by a spinal cord injury. Choice C is incorrect because the sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system and is involved in the response to autonomic dysreflexia. Choice D is incorrect because the peripheral nervous system includes the nerves that extend from the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body. Discussion Section
A client with diabetes insipidus is extremely dehydrated and is unable to take oral fluids. Fluid therapy is prescribed. Which intervention would be most important for the client? A. Monitoring the rate of IV infusions.B. Weighing the client daily. C. Measuring the urine output every 30 minutes. D. Measuring the fluid intake. Show correct answer and explanation Explanation Monitoring the rate of IV infusions. In clients with diabetes insipidus, fluid therapy is essential to restore hydration levels. It is important to monitor the rate of IV infusion to avoid rapid administration of fluids, which can lead to fluid overload and pulmonary edema. Therefore, monitoring the rate of IV infusions is the most important intervention for this client. Choice B, weighing the client daily, is incorrect because it is not the most important intervention for this client. While daily weighing is important for monitoring fluid balance, monitoring the rate of IV infusion is more critical. Choice C, measuring the urine output every 30 minutes, is incorrect because although it is important to monitor urine output in clients with diabetes insipidus, it is not the most important intervention. Monitoring the rate of IV infusion is more critical to prevent fluid overload. Choice D, measuring the fluid intake, is incorrect because although it is important to monitor fluid intake in clients with diabetes insipidus, it is not the most important intervention. Monitoring the rate of IV infusion is more critical to prevent fluid overload. Discussion Section Write a comment
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Post Comment 0 Pulse Checks No comments Question 22:
The nurse is reviewing a client's history which reveals that the client has had an oversecretion of growth hormone (GH) that occurred before puberty. The nurse interprets this as which of the following? A. Acromegaly. B. Gigantism.C. Dwarfism. D. Simmonds disease. Show correct answer and explanation Explanation Gigantism. Oversecretion of growth hormone before puberty leads to gigantism, which is characterized by excessive growth in height and length of bones. The growth hormone stimulates the growth of cartilage and bone, resulting in an increased height. When oversecretion occurs after puberty, it results in acromegaly, which is characterized by the enlargement of bones in the face, hands, and feet. Choice A, Acromegaly, is incorrect because acromegaly results from oversecretion of growth hormone after puberty, and not before puberty. Choice C, Dwarfism, is incorrect because dwarfism is caused by insufficient growth hormone secretion or poor response to the hormone, and not oversecretion. Choice D, Simmonds disease, is incorrect because Simmonds disease is a rare disorder characterized by the atrophy of the pituitary gland, which results in decreased secretion of several hormones, including growth hormone. Discussion Section Write a comment
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Post Comment 0 Pulse Checks No comments Question 23: The nurse is assisting the physician in completing a lumbar puncture. Which would the nurse note as a concern? A. Client states a piercing feeling. B. Physician maintains aseptic procedure. C. Client states pressure relief in the head. D. Cerebrospinal fluid is cloudy in nature.
